Home
Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning thawing procedure to treat prostate cancer cells?

A. slow thawing is more effective than rapid thawing

B. the most common complication is erectile dysfunction

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended

D. the two most common modalities employed in focal therapy are highintensity focused ultrasound and cryosurgery

Correct Answer :

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended


for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 40° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning prostate cancer?

A. the most common cause of mortality in men with prostate cancer is cardiac disease

B. is the second most common cause of cancer death in males

C. androgens have a pivotal role in prostate cancer development

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer

What is the correct answer?

4

Genetically, increased risk of prostate cancer has been found in men with:

A. variants in the 8q24 region on chromosome 8, in sporadic cases

B. alterations on chromosome 1, chromosome 17, and the X chromosome, in some familial cases

C. the human prostate cancer gene is on the X chromosome

D. all are true

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the possible complications of CO2 pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy?

A. hypoxia and acidosis

B. tachycardia and tachypnea

C. bradycardia and hypotension

D. hypercarbia and oliguria

What is the correct answer?

4

Ectopic expression of PSA occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. thyroid gland

B. breast tissue

C. adrenal glands

D. renal carcinomas

What is the correct answer?

4

Which PSA value interpretation is incorrect?

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

What is the correct answer?

4

Which factor is closely related to the return to urinary continence function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding seminal vesicles` involvement in prostate cancer?

A. is almost always due to direct extension (T2c)

B. it is involved in 85% of positive surgical margins following radical prostatectomy

C. it carries a poor prognosis

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the clinical parameters of tissue ablation achieved by cryotherapy for cancer cells destruction?

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Screening for prostate cancer is recommended for men who are:

A. at average risk, aging 50 yrs., and have at least a 10-year life expectancy

B. aging 40 yrs., and had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

C. aging 40 yrs., African Americans

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following situations prostate biopsy is most indicated?

A. normal DRE, abnormal PSA

B. abnormal DRE, abnormal PSA

C. abnormal DRE, normal PSA

D. hyperechoic areas on TRUS

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

What is the correct answer?

4

Solid lesions in the seminal vesicles are most likely to be a result of:

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

What is the correct answer?

4

What condition does NOT appear as a hypoechoic lesion in the prostate on TRUS?

A. prostate cancer

B. corpora amylacea

C. transitional zone

D. tuberculous prostatitis

What is the correct answer?

4

In descending order, to where do prostate cancers metastasize?

A. lymph nodes, bone, lung, bladder, liver, and adrenal glands

B. bone, lung, lymph nodes, liver, bladder, and adrenal glands

C. lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone, adrenal glands, and bladder

D. liver, lung, bone, lymph nodes, bladder, and adrenal glands

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the commonest complication of high-intensity focused ultrasound on treating localized prostate cancer?

A. temporary incontinence

B. vasculogenic impotence

C. urinary retention

D. hyper-reflexive detrusor

What is the correct answer?

4

What pathologic findings after radical prostatectomy are predictive for occult metastases?

A. seminal vesicle invasion and lymph node metastases

B. positive surgical margins and seminal vesicle involvement

C. capsular penetration and lymph node metastases

D. rectal and bladder neck involvement

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding prostate adenocarcinoma in the peripheral zone?

A. 85% of prostate adenocarcinomas are located in the peripheral zone

B. 15% of them are multifocal

C. they tend to extend outside the prostate through the perineural space

D. the presence of perineural invasion does not worsen the prognosis

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true surrounding PSA?

A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

What is the correct answer?

4

Prostate-specific membrane antigen has been detected in:

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

What is the correct answer?

4

What advantage does laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy has over open surgery in treating prostate cancers?

A. preserving potency

B. avoiding incontinence

C. less bleeding

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding prostatic tissue levels of hK2?

A. intensely expressed in benign prostatic epithelium

B. increased in poorly differentiated prostate cancer tissue

C. helps differentiate benign from malignant causes of high t-PSA

D. is an organ but not pathology specific marker

What is the correct answer?

4

Concerning prostate cancers, a pre-treatment PSA velocity of > 2 ng/mL/yr is associated with an increased risk of:

A. pathological bone fractures

B. biochemical failure following radiation therapy

C. hepato-renal disease following chemotherapy

D. upgrading the pre-treatment risk stratification

What is the correct answer?

4

All of the following modalities are used as salvage therapies after failing radiation therapy for prostate cancer treatment, EXCEPT:

A. cryotherapy

B. chemotherapy

C. brachytherapy

D. radical prostatectomy

What is the correct answer?

4

During retropubic radical prostatectomy, what complication could be encountered on dividing the dorsal vein complex anteriorly?

A. incontinence

B. retrograde ejaculation

C. impotence

D. anejaculation

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding radical prostatectomy, the commonest site of positive surgical margins is the:

A. apex

B. posterior

C. postero-lateral

D. anterior

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning the interpretation of Gleason scoring system?

A. a low score means the cancer tissue is similar to normal prostate tissue

B. it indicates how likely the tumor will spread

C. the more cellular atypia observed the higher scoring will be

D. it relies only on the glandular architectural pattern