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Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning prostate cancer?

A. the most common cause of mortality in men with prostate cancer is cardiac disease

B. is the second most common cause of cancer death in males

C. androgens have a pivotal role in prostate cancer development

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer

Correct Answer :

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer


fat intake and obesity may play a role in the development of prostate cancer.

Related Questions

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4

What is false concerning thawing procedure to treat prostate cancer cells?

A. slow thawing is more effective than rapid thawing

B. the most common complication is erectile dysfunction

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended

D. the two most common modalities employed in focal therapy are highintensity focused ultrasound and cryosurgery

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4

Prostate-specific membrane antigen has been detected in:

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

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4

What is false concerning prostate cancer?

A. the most common cause of mortality in men with prostate cancer is cardiac disease

B. is the second most common cause of cancer death in males

C. androgens have a pivotal role in prostate cancer development

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer

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4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

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4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

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4

What is true about the usefulness of Gleason scoring system?

A. used to stage prostate cancer

B. a specimen of grade 3 + 4 is worse than 4 + 3

C. a sum of 6 suggests an intermediate risk for aggressive cancer

D. it has a role in guiding the appropriate treatment options

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4

What is the commonest complication of high-intensity focused ultrasound on treating localized prostate cancer?

A. temporary incontinence

B. vasculogenic impotence

C. urinary retention

D. hyper-reflexive detrusor

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4

Regarding chemotherapy for prostate cancers, nonsteroidal antiandrogens will result in:

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

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4

What condition does NOT appear as a hypoechoic lesion in the prostate on TRUS?

A. prostate cancer

B. corpora amylacea

C. transitional zone

D. tuberculous prostatitis

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4

During retropubic radical prostatectomy, what complication could be encountered on dividing the dorsal vein complex anteriorly?

A. incontinence

B. retrograde ejaculation

C. impotence

D. anejaculation

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4

What is false concerning the interpretation of Gleason scoring system?

A. a low score means the cancer tissue is similar to normal prostate tissue

B. it indicates how likely the tumor will spread

C. the more cellular atypia observed the higher scoring will be

D. it relies only on the glandular architectural pattern

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4

Which factor(s) determine(s) the return to normal erectile function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning Gleason scoring system for prostate cancers?

A. ranges from 0 -10 based on a histologic evaluation of tumor specimens

B. based on the 2 most common histologic patterns

C. greatly relies on the skills and experience of the pathologist

D. a score of 7 indicates a moderate-grade or moderately differentiated tumor

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4

Partin tables are probability tables for the determination of pathologic stages of prostatic cancers based on:

A. preoperative clinical stage, PSA level, and Gleason sum

B. seminal vesicle invasion, lymph node metastases, and Gleason sum

C. positive surgical margins, capsular penetration, and PSA level

D. PSA level, perineural invasion, vascular metastasis, and Gleason sum

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4

What is the first-line chemotherapeutic agent for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer?

A. bisphosphonate

B. docetaxel

C. sipuleucel-T

D. enzalutamide

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4

Solid lesions in the seminal vesicles are most likely to be a result of:

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

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4

What is false regarding prostate adenocarcinoma in the peripheral zone?

A. 85% of prostate adenocarcinomas are located in the peripheral zone

B. 15% of them are multifocal

C. they tend to extend outside the prostate through the perineural space

D. the presence of perineural invasion does not worsen the prognosis

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4

Concerning prostate cancers, a pre-treatment PSA velocity of > 2 ng/mL/yr is associated with an increased risk of:

A. pathological bone fractures

B. biochemical failure following radiation therapy

C. hepato-renal disease following chemotherapy

D. upgrading the pre-treatment risk stratification

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4

What is true surrounding PSA?

A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do

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4

What is false regarding the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

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4

What is true regarding prostatic tissue levels of hK2?

A. intensely expressed in benign prostatic epithelium

B. increased in poorly differentiated prostate cancer tissue

C. helps differentiate benign from malignant causes of high t-PSA

D. is an organ but not pathology specific marker

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4

What pathologic findings after radical prostatectomy are predictive for occult metastases?

A. seminal vesicle invasion and lymph node metastases

B. positive surgical margins and seminal vesicle involvement

C. capsular penetration and lymph node metastases

D. rectal and bladder neck involvement

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4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

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4

What is the primary mechanism of prostate tissue ablation using high-intensity focused ultrasound?

A. disruption of protein synthesis

B. coagulative necrosis

C. cell wall destruction

D. DNA damage

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4

What are the clinical parameters of tissue ablation achieved by cryotherapy for cancer cells destruction?

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

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4

All of the following modalities are used as salvage therapies after failing radiation therapy for prostate cancer treatment, EXCEPT:

A. cryotherapy

B. chemotherapy

C. brachytherapy

D. radical prostatectomy

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4

For prostate cancer patients, what do Partin tables predict?

A. survival rate

B. pathologic stage

C. extracapsular extension

D. lymph node involvement

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4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting strategy involves:

A. periodic PSA testing

B. periodic TRUS

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

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4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting is a reasonable option for:

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

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4

In descending order, to where do prostate cancers metastasize?

A. lymph nodes, bone, lung, bladder, liver, and adrenal glands

B. bone, lung, lymph nodes, liver, bladder, and adrenal glands

C. lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone, adrenal glands, and bladder

D. liver, lung, bone, lymph nodes, bladder, and adrenal glands