A. periodic PSA testing

B. periodic TRUS

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

A. variants in the 8q24 region on chromosome 8, in sporadic cases

B. alterations on chromosome 1, chromosome 17, and the X chromosome, in some familial cases

C. the human prostate cancer gene is on the X chromosome

D. all are true

A. 85% of prostate adenocarcinomas are located in the peripheral zone

B. 15% of them are multifocal

C. they tend to extend outside the prostate through the perineural space

D. the presence of perineural invasion does not worsen the prognosis

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

A. pathological bone fractures

B. biochemical failure following radiation therapy

C. hepato-renal disease following chemotherapy

D. upgrading the pre-treatment risk stratification

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

A. slow thawing is more effective than rapid thawing

B. the most common complication is erectile dysfunction

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended

D. the two most common modalities employed in focal therapy are highintensity focused ultrasound and cryosurgery

A. a low score means the cancer tissue is similar to normal prostate tissue

B. it indicates how likely the tumor will spread

C. the more cellular atypia observed the higher scoring will be

D. it relies only on the glandular architectural pattern

A. used to stage prostate cancer

B. a specimen of grade 3 + 4 is worse than 4 + 3

C. a sum of 6 suggests an intermediate risk for aggressive cancer

D. it has a role in guiding the appropriate treatment options

A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

A. periodic PSA testing

B. periodic TRUS

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

A. bisphosphonate

B. docetaxel

C. sipuleucel-T

D. enzalutamide

A. hypoxia and acidosis

B. tachycardia and tachypnea

C. bradycardia and hypotension

D. hypercarbia and oliguria

A. is almost always due to direct extension (T2c)

B. it is involved in 85% of positive surgical margins following radical prostatectomy

C. it carries a poor prognosis

D. none of the above

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

A. PSA

B. digital rectal examination

C. transrectal ultrasonography

D. human kallikrein 2

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

A. at average risk, aging 50 yrs., and have at least a 10-year life expectancy

B. aging 40 yrs., and had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

C. aging 40 yrs., African Americans

D. all of the above

A. apex

B. posterior

C. postero-lateral

D. anterior

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

A. low risk

B. intermediate risk

C. high risk

D. data not adequate

A. commonly used in combination with a GnRH agonist

B. less effective than medical or surgical castration

C. not recommended for localized prostate cancer

D. inhibits various cytochrome P-450 enzymes

A. loss of one or both copies of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN

B. TMPRSS2ERG chromosome fusion

C. P53 mutations and overexpression of MYC

D. all of the above

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

A. intensely expressed in benign prostatic epithelium

B. increased in poorly differentiated prostate cancer tissue

C. helps differentiate benign from malignant causes of high t-PSA

D. is an organ but not pathology specific marker

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

A. temporary incontinence

B. vasculogenic impotence

C. urinary retention

D. hyper-reflexive detrusor

A. survival rate

B. pathologic stage

C. extracapsular extension

D. lymph node involvement