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What is the correct answer?

4

What is true about the usefulness of Gleason scoring system?

A. used to stage prostate cancer

B. a specimen of grade 3 + 4 is worse than 4 + 3

C. a sum of 6 suggests an intermediate risk for aggressive cancer

D. it has a role in guiding the appropriate treatment options

Correct Answer :

D. it has a role in guiding the appropriate treatment options


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

Following bilateral orchiectomy for prostate cancer, testosterone will:

A. initially drop to nadir, and then recover over 2 weeks

B. decline by 50% within 2 weeks and then normalize

C. decline by 90% within 24 hours

D. decline by 70%

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4

Regarding radical prostatectomy, the commonest site of positive surgical margins is the:

A. apex

B. posterior

C. postero-lateral

D. anterior

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4

What is false concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

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4

In which of the following PSA readings prostate cancer is least suspected?

A. PSA velocity of 0.35 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is ≤ 2.5 ng/mL

B. PSA velocity of 0.75 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is 4 10 ng/mL

C. t-PSA is 2.8 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.94 ng/mL

D. t-PSA is 3.7 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.51 ng/mL

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4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting is a reasonable option for:

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

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4

Prostate-specific membrane antigen has been detected in:

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

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4

In descending order, to where do prostate cancers metastasize?

A. lymph nodes, bone, lung, bladder, liver, and adrenal glands

B. bone, lung, lymph nodes, liver, bladder, and adrenal glands

C. lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone, adrenal glands, and bladder

D. liver, lung, bone, lymph nodes, bladder, and adrenal glands

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4

What is false concerning Gleason scoring system for prostate cancers?

A. ranges from 0 -10 based on a histologic evaluation of tumor specimens

B. based on the 2 most common histologic patterns

C. greatly relies on the skills and experience of the pathologist

D. a score of 7 indicates a moderate-grade or moderately differentiated tumor

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4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

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4

What is false concerning antiandrogen class of prostate cancer medications?

A. commonly used in combination with a GnRH agonist

B. less effective than medical or surgical castration

C. not recommended for localized prostate cancer

D. inhibits various cytochrome P-450 enzymes

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4

Which factor is closely related to the return to urinary continence function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

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4

What is true concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. hematospermia might persist for 4 6 weeks after taking biopsies

B. quinolone antibiotics prophylaxis eliminate possible infections

C. the right lateral decubitus position is commonly preferred

D. only hypoechoic lesions should be biopsied

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4

Regarding chemotherapy for prostate cancers, nonsteroidal antiandrogens will result in:

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

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4

What is the likelihood that patients with positive surgical margins after radical prostatectomy will be cured for prostate cancer?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

What is true surrounding PSA?

A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do

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4

What is the primary mechanism of prostate tissue ablation using high-intensity focused ultrasound?

A. disruption of protein synthesis

B. coagulative necrosis

C. cell wall destruction

D. DNA damage

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4

Which of the following tests has the highest positive predictive value for prostate cancer?

A. PSA

B. digital rectal examination

C. transrectal ultrasonography

D. human kallikrein 2

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4

In which of the following situations prostate biopsy is most indicated?

A. normal DRE, abnormal PSA

B. abnormal DRE, abnormal PSA

C. abnormal DRE, normal PSA

D. hyperechoic areas on TRUS

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4

What class of prostate cancer medications causes an initial increase in LH, FSH levels and consequently a rise in testosterone level for few weeks?

A. GnRH agonists

B. antiandrogens

C. antimicrotubular

D. bisphosphonates

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4

Solid lesions in the seminal vesicles are most likely to be a result of:

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

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4

All of the following modalities are used as salvage therapies after failing radiation therapy for prostate cancer treatment, EXCEPT:

A. cryotherapy

B. chemotherapy

C. brachytherapy

D. radical prostatectomy

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4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

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4

What if false concerning the prostate cancer marker PCA3?

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

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4

Ectopic expression of PSA occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. thyroid gland

B. breast tissue

C. adrenal glands

D. renal carcinomas

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4

What is the likelihood that prostate cells die in a single freeze cycle of cryotherapy when tissue temperature reaches colder than - 400 C?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

What is false regarding the histology of prostatic cancers?

A. benign glands are different from malignant glands, as they contain basal cells

B. adenosis in the transitional zone carries 15% increase in cancer risk

C. the prostate has no discrete histologic capsule

D. intraductal carcinoma is morphologically worse than high-grade PIN and is typically associated with high-grade carcinoma

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4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

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4

During retropubic radical prostatectomy, what complication could be encountered on dividing the dorsal vein complex anteriorly?

A. incontinence

B. retrograde ejaculation

C. impotence

D. anejaculation

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4

Which factor(s) determine(s) the return to normal erectile function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What is the commonest complication of high-intensity focused ultrasound on treating localized prostate cancer?

A. temporary incontinence

B. vasculogenic impotence

C. urinary retention

D. hyper-reflexive detrusor