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4

What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?

A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption

B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium

C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase

D. hypercalcemia

Correct Answer :

A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?

A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation

B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss

C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH

D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation

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4

What sequence of ureteral parts represents the most to least favorable stone response to ESWL treatment?

A. upper, lower, mid

B. lower, upper, mid

C. mid, upper, lower

D. mid, lower, upper

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4

What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?

A. the surface area of the stones

B. the volume of the stones

C. the density of the stones

D. the number of the stones

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4

What could carry the least risk of colon injury during PCNL?

A. subcostal puncture performed during full expiration

B. previous open nephrolithotomy

C. access lateral to the posterior axillary line

D. horseshoe kidney

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4

What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?

A. dehydration

B. metabolic disorders

C. congenital anomalies

D. all of the above

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4

What is the immediate management of ureteral avulsion on retrieving an upper ureteral stone by a basket?

A. placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain

B. surgical exploration and primary repair

C. conservative management

D. endoscopic retrograde ureteral stenting

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4

What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?

A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure

B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic

C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature

D. it is indicated when stones are ≤ 4 mm in diameter

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4

What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?

A. is symptomless

B. should undergo a trial of milking out

C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice

D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option

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4

How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?

A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter

B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)

C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia

D. by all of the above

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4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

What is false concerning the use of antibiotics in stone patients?

A. they are mandatory when urine shows ≥ 10 WBCs/hpf in symptomatic patients

B. they aim at treating pyonephrosis and urosepsis

C. they should cover Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus, Enterobacter, Proteus, and Klebsiella species

D. All of the above

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4

Ureteral stones of ≥ 7 mm:

A. should be treated with more analgesics

B. must undergo metabolic worked out

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously

D. chemolysis should be tried first

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4

What is the preferred drug for medical expulsive therapy for lower ureteral stones?

A. furosemide

B. tamsulosin

C. nifedipine

D. diclofenac

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?

A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography

B. by performing radial nephrotomies

C. by performing adjunct PCLN

D. by taking a scout KUB film

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4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy

B. might slip out, especially in females

C. usually radiopaque

D. all of the above

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4

In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?

A. indinavir

B. magnesium ammonium phosphate

C. xanthine

D. matrix

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4

What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?

A. Ca.phosphate

B. Ca.oxalate

C. Na.urate

D. struvite

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4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

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4

What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?

A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin

B. the size of the focal point

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What is (are) true concerning ESWL?

A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone

B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation

C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning preputial stones?

A. form due to inspissated smegma

B. form due to stasis of urinary salts

C. cause inguinal lymphadenopathy

D. often associated with phimosis in uncircumcised males

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4

What type of shockwaves is generated by spark-gap technology?

A. piezoelectric

B. electrohydraulic

C. electromagnetic

D. microexplosive

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

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4

What is true regarding prostatic stones?

A. they are multiple and small in size

B. usually, they are voided spontaneously

C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone

D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL

C. radial nephrolithotomy

D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels