A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen

B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency

C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness

D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

A. cystitis glandularis

B. cystitis cystica

C. esinophilic cystitis

D. cystitis follicularis

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

A. scrotal support and elevation

B. ice packs

C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

D. urethral catheterization

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. 45% are caused by E. coli

B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases

C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics

D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill

B. might cause radiolucent renal stones

C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously

D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)

A. a history of repeated urologic and/or gynecologic procedures

B. 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems

C. 4 fold higher incidence of anxiety-depression syndrome

D. 6 fold higher incidence of psychosomatic disorders

A. infertility

B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor

D. chronic orchalgia

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

A. sulfonamide for several months

B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging

C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation

A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas

B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed

C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell

D. surgical debridement often spares the testes

A. fever and chills

B. suprapubic pain and pyuria

C. flank pain and tenderness

D. none of the above

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

A. characterized by neurovirulence

B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks

C. HSV can be isolated in the urine

D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does