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Current Affairs January 2024

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4

What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

Correct Answer :

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi


among the indicated collection; kidneys, prostate, and epididymi are the commonest.

Related Questions

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4

What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

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4

What is false concerning epididymitis?

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

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4

What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

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4

In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?

A. VB1 and VB3

B. prostatic secretions and the VB3

C. prostatic secretions and the VB2

D. prostatic secretions and the VB1

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4

In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

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4

What is true concerning HIV infection?

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

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4

What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

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4

What is false regarding cystitis cystica?

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

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4

What condition causes sterile pyuria?

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

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4

What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

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4

What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

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4

Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

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4

Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

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4

What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

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4

A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

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4

What is true concerning ovarian vein syndrome?

A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction

B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein

C. commonly, occurs at the left side

D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy

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4

What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above

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4

What is the most significant biological difference in women susceptibility to UTI?

A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells

B. vaginal dryness

C. O serogroup

D. vaginal pH

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4

What kind of cystitis does NOT progress to malignancy?

A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi

B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis

C. schistosomiasis cystitis

D. inverted papilloma of the bladder

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4

During the initial 3-month period of HIV infection, what would be the best diagnostic lab test?

A. viral load assay

B. western blot analysis

C. southern blot analysis

D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay

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4

What type of bladder cells secretes antiproliferative factor?

A. bladder epithelial cells

B. type C nerve endings in the bladder

C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder

D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle

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4

HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:

A. Kaposi sarcoma,

B. Hodgkin lymphoma

C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

D. cervical cancer

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4

What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?

A. aminoglycoside

B. fluoroquinolone

C. 2nd generation cephalosporin

D. doxycycline

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4

What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%

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4

What is false about urinary catheters?

A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon

D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters

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4

What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

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4

What is true concerning BPS/IC?

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

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4

What is false concerning chronic orchialgia syndrome?

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

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4

What antimicrobial agent treats UTI and does NOT alter the gut flora?

A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins