A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine

B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis

D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures

B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy

C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder

D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection

A. sulfonamide for several months

B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging

C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation

A. Kaposi sarcoma,

B. Hodgkin lymphoma

C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

D. cervical cancer

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells

B. vaginal dryness

C. O serogroup

D. vaginal pH

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

A. 1.7%

B. 7%

C. 17%

D. 71%

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia

B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney

C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma

D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms

B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine

C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen

D. all of the above

A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon

D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters

A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction

B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein

C. commonly, occurs at the left side

D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS

B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination

C. the presence of ≥10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b

D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a