A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS

B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination

C. the presence of ≥10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b

D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a

A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge

B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic

C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes

D. responds fairly to azithromycin

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. is always asymptomatic

B. it shows a serological immune antibody response

C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria

D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks

A. von Hippel-Lindau disease

B. tuberous sclerosis

C. cystic fibrosis

D. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

A. fever and chills

B. suprapubic pain and pyuria

C. flank pain and tenderness

D. none of the above

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine

B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis

D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion

B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention

C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide

D. low dose external beam irradiation

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above