A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection

B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices

C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages

D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract

A. chronic epididymitis

B. epididymo-orchitis

C. chronic bacterial prostatitis

D. venereal cysto-urethritis

A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS

B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination

C. the presence of ≥10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b

D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

A. acute epididymitis

B. indwelling urethral catheters

C. transurethral surgery

D. all of the above

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction

B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy

C. has no specific medical therapy

D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. cystitis glandularis

B. cystitis cystica

C. esinophilic cystitis

D. cystitis follicularis

A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia

B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney

C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma

D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia

A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications

B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy

C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid

D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%

A. scrotal support and elevation

B. ice packs

C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

D. urethral catheterization

A. patients with indwelling catheters

B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

C. pregnant women

D. children under 5 years

A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium

B. harbors p53 gene mutations

C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding

D. the lesion requires transurethral resection

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas

B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed

C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell

D. surgical debridement often spares the testes

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis