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What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

Correct Answer :

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought


PCN has no role in acute pyelonephritis. Ascending infections by e.coli are more common than blood-born staph. infections. Empirical antibiotics must be started from day 1 until culture results appear.

Related Questions

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4

What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

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4

What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

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4

A 44 yrs. male presents with recurrent left pyelonephritis and Proteus infection. His kidney is dilated and contains a stone. A renal biopsy showed foamy macrophages with neutrophils and cellular debris. What is the treatment?

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

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4

What is the most significant complication of papillary necrosis?

A. ureteral obstruction

B. proteinuria

C. stone formation

D. renal scarring

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4

What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

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4

What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

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4

What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?

A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS

B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination

C. the presence of ≥10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b

D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a

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4

What condition does NOT present as an acute loin pain with fever and marked flank tenderness?

A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia

B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney

C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma

D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia

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4

What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

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4

What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?

A. patients with indwelling catheters

B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

C. pregnant women

D. children under 5 years

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4

What is essential on diagnosing bladder pain syndrome BPS/IC?

A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures

B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy

C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder

D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection

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4

What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?

A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium

B. harbors p53 gene mutations

C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding

D. the lesion requires transurethral resection

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4

What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

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4

What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?

A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine

B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis

D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased

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4

What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

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4

What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

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4

What is false concerning UTI in long-term care facilities?

A. in catheterized individuals, entry of bacteria into the bladder is facilitated by the bacterial glycocalyx biofilm

B. infection cannot be reliably distinguished from bacteriuria by lab tests

C. co-trimoxazole is the preferred antibiotic for empiric therapy

D. symptomatic UTI may be a diagnosis of exclusion

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4

What is false regarding malakoplakia?

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

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4

How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

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4

What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

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4

What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?

A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling

B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough

C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure

D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia

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4

What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

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4

Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

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4

What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

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4

What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?

A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction

B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy

C. has no specific medical therapy

D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria

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4

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?

A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion

B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention

C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide

D. low dose external beam irradiation

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4

What are the sequelae of recurrent uncomplicated UTI in young women?

A. minimal

B. chronic persistent infections

C. chronic relapsing infections

D. bouts of chronic pyelonephritis

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4

What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor