A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS

B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination

C. the presence of ≥10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b

D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%

A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas

B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed

C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell

D. surgical debridement often spares the testes

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters

B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder

C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema

D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications

B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy

C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid

D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture

A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling

B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough

C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure

D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia

A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag

B. daily cleansing the external meatus

C. placing the urine bag on the floor

D. changing the urine bag once it is full

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. is always asymptomatic

B. it shows a serological immune antibody response

C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria

D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals

B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals

C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection

D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery

A. cystitis glandularis

B. cystitis cystica

C. esinophilic cystitis

D. cystitis follicularis

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles