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What is the correct answer?

4

All of the following etiologies for interstitial cystitis have been theorized, EXCEPT:

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

Correct Answer :

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response


allergic type I is an immediate anaphylactic immune response.

Related Questions

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4

What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?

A. fever, chills, abdominal pain

B. costovertibral angle tenderness

C. hypogastric and loin pain

D. flank pain, dysuria

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4

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?

A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion

B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention

C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide

D. low dose external beam irradiation

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4

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

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4

What is false concerning genitourinary TB?

A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection

B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices

C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages

D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract

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4

What is the bladder`s first-line defense against infections?

A. natural sloughing of bladder mucosa

B. voiding

C. urine osmolarity

D. urine pH

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4

What is true concerning HIV infection?

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

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4

A 44 yrs. male presents with recurrent left pyelonephritis and Proteus infection. His kidney is dilated and contains a stone. A renal biopsy showed foamy macrophages with neutrophils and cellular debris. What is the treatment?

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

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4

What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

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4

What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

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4

What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

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4

A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

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4

What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

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4

What is the best statement that describes the action of antiproliferative factor?

A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation

B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors

C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to facilitation of microbial ascent?

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

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4

What is NOT a poor clinical practice on caring for urethral catheters?

A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag

B. daily cleansing the external meatus

C. placing the urine bag on the floor

D. changing the urine bag once it is full

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4

What is the most significant biological difference in women susceptibility to UTI?

A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells

B. vaginal dryness

C. O serogroup

D. vaginal pH

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4

What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

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4

What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

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4

What is true regarding genitourinary TB?

A. commonly, TB enters the urinary tract via intravesical instillation of attenuated live BCG to treat bladder cancer

B. CT urography may show infundibular stricture with or without hydrocalicosis

C. renal ultrasonography reveals calyceal erosions moth-eaten calyx

D. TB of the vas appears, clinically, as a thin hard strictured tube

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4

What is false concerning radiation cystitis?

A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks

B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do

C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years

D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy

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4

What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

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4

What is true concerning BPS/IC?

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

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4

What is true regarding chronic epididymitis symptomatology?

A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen

B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency

C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness

D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge

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4

What is false concerning urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

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4

What condition does NOT present as an acute loin pain with fever and marked flank tenderness?

A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia

B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney

C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma

D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia

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4

Directed physiotherapy could be of value in treating what NIH type of prostatitis?

A. type II

B. type III-a

C. type III-b

D. type IV

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4

What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

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4

What is the earliest clinical finding of urosepsis?

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

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4

What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?

A. patients with indwelling catheters

B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

C. pregnant women

D. children under 5 years

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4

What is the likelihood of contracting gonorrheal disease following a single intercourse with an infected woman?

A. 1.7%

B. 7%

C. 17%

D. 71%