A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles

B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains

C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC

D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes

A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling

B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough

C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure

D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count

B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies

C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious

D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons

A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI

B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

A. fever, chills, abdominal pain

B. costovertibral angle tenderness

C. hypogastric and loin pain

D. flank pain, dysuria

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis

A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia

B. might respond to a selective nerve block

C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis

D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain

A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles

B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains

C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC

D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

A. greater than 8 fold

B. greater than 6 fold

C. greater than 4 fold

D. comparable

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms

B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine

C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen

D. all of the above

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes