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4

What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?

A. patients with indwelling catheters

B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

C. pregnant women

D. children under 5 years

Correct Answer :

A. patients with indwelling catheters


patients with indwelling catheters rapidly develop antibiotic resistance if treated based on culture alone.

Related Questions

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4

What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

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4

What is true concerning BPS/IC?

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

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4

What antimicrobial agent treats UTI and does NOT alter the gut flora?

A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

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4

What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?

A. acute epididymitis

B. indwelling urethral catheters

C. transurethral surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What is the commonest cause of relapsing UTI in males?

A. chronic epididymitis

B. epididymo-orchitis

C. chronic bacterial prostatitis

D. venereal cysto-urethritis

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4

What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

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4

What are the sequelae of recurrent uncomplicated UTI in young women?

A. minimal

B. chronic persistent infections

C. chronic relapsing infections

D. bouts of chronic pyelonephritis

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4

What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

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4

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?

A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion

B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention

C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide

D. low dose external beam irradiation

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4

What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?

A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction

B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy

C. has no specific medical therapy

D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria

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4

What is false regarding schistosomal cystitis?

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

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4

Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

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4

What is essential on diagnosing bladder pain syndrome BPS/IC?

A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures

B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy

C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder

D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection

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4

Which of the following does NOT cause sterile pyouria?

A. inadequately treated UTI

B. renal papillary necrosis

C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis

D. urinary tract tuberculosis

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4

What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

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4

What condition is associated with renal papillary necrosis?

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis

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4

How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

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4

What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

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4

What is false regarding the etiology and treatment of orchialgia syndrome?

A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia

B. might respond to a selective nerve block

C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis

D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain

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4

What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

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4

What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

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4

What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

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4

What is false concerning peri-renal abscess?

A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection

B. urine culture might be negative

C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis

D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment

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4

What is true regarding chronic epididymitis symptomatology?

A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen

B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency

C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness

D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge

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4

What is false regarding malakoplakia?

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

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4

The relative risk of prostate cancer in men with HIV compared to uninfected individuals is:

A. greater than 8 fold

B. greater than 6 fold

C. greater than 4 fold

D. comparable

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4

A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

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4

What is false concerning antiretroviral medications?

A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill

B. might cause radiolucent renal stones

C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously

D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)

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4

What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

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4

Directed physiotherapy could be of value in treating what NIH type of prostatitis?

A. type II

B. type III-a

C. type III-b

D. type IV