A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

A. in the elderly

B. in long-term catheterized patient

C. in pregnancy

D. none of the above

A. VB1 and VB3

B. prostatic secretions and the VB3

C. prostatic secretions and the VB2

D. prostatic secretions and the VB1

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks

A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection

B. urine culture might be negative

C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis

D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment

A. a history of repeated urologic and/or gynecologic procedures

B. 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems

C. 4 fold higher incidence of anxiety-depression syndrome

D. 6 fold higher incidence of psychosomatic disorders

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine

B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis

D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased

A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling

B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough

C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure

D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia

A. P blood-group antigen

B. P fimbriae in descending infections

C. emolysins

D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals

B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

C. ampicillin

D. fosfomycin

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count

B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies

C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious

D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons

A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation

B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors

C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors

D. none of the above

A. in catheterized individuals, entry of bacteria into the bladder is facilitated by the bacterial glycocalyx biofilm

B. infection cannot be reliably distinguished from bacteriuria by lab tests

C. co-trimoxazole is the preferred antibiotic for empiric therapy

D. symptomatic UTI may be a diagnosis of exclusion

A. bladder epithelial cells

B. type C nerve endings in the bladder

C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder

D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle

A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag

B. daily cleansing the external meatus

C. placing the urine bag on the floor

D. changing the urine bag once it is full

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. commonly, TB enters the urinary tract via intravesical instillation of attenuated live BCG to treat bladder cancer

B. CT urography may show infundibular stricture with or without hydrocalicosis

C. renal ultrasonography reveals calyceal erosions moth-eaten calyx

D. TB of the vas appears, clinically, as a thin hard strictured tube

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. children

B. the elderly

C. men

D. women

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above