A. inadequately treated UTI

B. renal papillary necrosis

C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis

D. urinary tract tuberculosis

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition

B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria

C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters

D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

A. aminoglycoside

B. fluoroquinolone

C. 2nd generation cephalosporin

D. doxycycline

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi

B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis

C. schistosomiasis cystitis

D. inverted papilloma of the bladder

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas

B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed

C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell

D. surgical debridement often spares the testes

A. fever and chills

B. suprapubic pain and pyuria

C. flank pain and tenderness

D. none of the above

A. mode of administration

B. level in the serum

C. level in the urine

D. dosage

A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill

B. might cause radiolucent renal stones

C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously

D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill

B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse

C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock

A. children

B. the elderly

C. men

D. women

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters

B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder

C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema

D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. asymptomatic bacteriuria

B. sterile pyouria

C. bacterial colonization

D. unresolved bacteriuria

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection

B. urine culture might be negative

C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis

D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment

A. viral load assay

B. western blot analysis

C. southern blot analysis

D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. scrotal support and elevation

B. ice packs

C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

D. urethral catheterization