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Current Affairs January 2024

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4

What is the commonest cause of relapsing UTI in males?

A. chronic epididymitis

B. epididymo-orchitis

C. chronic bacterial prostatitis

D. venereal cysto-urethritis

Correct Answer :

C. chronic bacterial prostatitis


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

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4

Ureteral dilation in schistosomiasis could be due to:

A. vesicoureteral reflux

B. stenosis of the lower ureter

C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis

D. any of the above

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4

What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

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4

What is false regarding cystitis cystica?

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

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4

In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

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4

What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

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4

What is false concerning epididymitis?

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

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4

Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

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4

In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?

A. VB1 and VB3

B. prostatic secretions and the VB3

C. prostatic secretions and the VB2

D. prostatic secretions and the VB1

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4

What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%

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4

Screening for bacteriuria is mostly indicated for:

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

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4

UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:

A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles

B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains

C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC

D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes

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4

What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

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4

What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?

A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium

B. harbors p53 gene mutations

C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding

D. the lesion requires transurethral resection

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4

What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

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4

What is the most significant complication of papillary necrosis?

A. ureteral obstruction

B. proteinuria

C. stone formation

D. renal scarring

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4

What is false concerning UTI in long-term care facilities?

A. in catheterized individuals, entry of bacteria into the bladder is facilitated by the bacterial glycocalyx biofilm

B. infection cannot be reliably distinguished from bacteriuria by lab tests

C. co-trimoxazole is the preferred antibiotic for empiric therapy

D. symptomatic UTI may be a diagnosis of exclusion

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4

What is false concerning peri-renal abscess?

A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection

B. urine culture might be negative

C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis

D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment

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4

Which statement best defines reinfection?

A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals

B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals

C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection

D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery

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4

What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

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4

Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:

A. in the elderly

B. in long-term catheterized patient

C. in pregnancy

D. none of the above

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4

A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

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4

What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

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4

What type of bladder cells secretes antiproliferative factor?

A. bladder epithelial cells

B. type C nerve endings in the bladder

C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder

D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle

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4

What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

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4

Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

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4

What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

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4

What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

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4

What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to facilitation of microbial ascent?

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence