A. acute epididymitis

B. indwelling urethral catheters

C. transurethral surgery

D. all of the above

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis

A. infertility

B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor

D. chronic orchalgia

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. a history of repeated urologic and/or gynecologic procedures

B. 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems

C. 4 fold higher incidence of anxiety-depression syndrome

D. 6 fold higher incidence of psychosomatic disorders

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

A. greater than 8 fold

B. greater than 6 fold

C. greater than 4 fold

D. comparable

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin

A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition

B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria

C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters

D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals

B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

C. ampicillin

D. fosfomycin

A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation

B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors

C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors

D. none of the above

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

A. viral load assay

B. western blot analysis

C. southern blot analysis

D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

A. chronic epididymitis

B. epididymo-orchitis

C. chronic bacterial prostatitis

D. venereal cysto-urethritis

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen

B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency

C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness

D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals

B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals

C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection

D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery