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4

What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?

A. intratubular crystal formation might occur

B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi

C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication

D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion

Correct Answer :

C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication


crystallization and stone formation are demonstrated in as many as 20% of patients taking the medication.

Related Questions

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

Which nephron segment contains the most diluted urine in central diabetes insipidus patient?

A. proximal convoluted tubules

B. distal convoluted tubules

C. collecting duct

D. loop of Henle

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4

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypocitraturia?

A. high protein diet

B. hypokalaemia

C. proximal renal tubular acidosis

D. idiopathic

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4

What is false concerning PSA molecule?

A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate

B. α1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

C. α2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa

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4

Which structure is a part of the renal hilum?

A. renal pelvis

B. branches of the renal artery

C. tributaries of renal vein

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase PSA value?

A. trauma to the prostate

B. digital rectal examination

C. urinary retention

D. prostatitis

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4

What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?

A. Denonvilliers fascia

B. prostatic fascia

C. levator fascia

D. all of the above

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4

At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?

A. sixth

B. seventh

C. eighth

D. ninth

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4

By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?

A. inferior mesenteric artery

B. superior mesenteric artery

C. celiac artery

D. common iliac artery

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4

What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?

A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite

B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction

C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria

D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete

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4

What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?

A. catalase activity of erythrocytes

B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes

C. lyase activity of erythrocytes

D. none of the above

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4

What does make UTI more common in mid-aged females than in males?

A. short female urethra

B. pregnancy

C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria

D. all the above

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4

Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?

A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

B. von Hippel-Lindau disease

C. tuberous sclerosis

D. Sturge-Webber syndrome

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4

Which α- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?

A. α1-A

B. α2-A

C. α1-B

D. α2-B

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4

Which statement is NOT related to Klinefelter syndrome?

A. sterility is the rule

B. has a considerable short life span

C. treatment requires testicular microdissection and sperm extraction

D. 47 XXY karyotype

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4

Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?

A. opening of internal bladder sphincter

B. fall in urethral pressure

C. rise in intravesical pressure

D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity

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4

What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?

A. vancomycin

B. clindamycin

C. streptomycin

D. tobramycin

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4

Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?

A. 5α-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT

B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen

C. PSA molecule binds to α1-antichymotrypsin and α2-macroglobulin

D. none of the above

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4

What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?

A. clotting factor VIII deficiency

B. clotting factor IX deficiency

C. breech delivery

D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma

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4

How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 64

D. 90

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4

What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?

A. sympathetic to the medulla

B. parasympathetic to the medulla

C. sympathetic to the cortex

D. parasympathetic to the cortex

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4

What helps in treating Candida albicans cystitis is:

A. sodium bicarbonate

B. phyto soya

C. ascorbic acid

D. sol palmetto

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4

What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?

A. administration of hypertonic saline

B. administration of crystalloid

C. administration of normal saline

D. administration of ringer lactate

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4

Which layer lies between the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes?

A. Scarpa`s fascia

B. fascia lata

C. Dartos fascia

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?

A. adduction

B. abduction

C. flexion

D. extension

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4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?

A. the membranous

B. the bladder neck

C. the bulbous

D. the external urethral meatus

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4

What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?

A. ureteral atresia

B. vesicoureteral reflux

C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

D. ureteral duplication

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4

Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. periurethral glands

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4

What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?

A. somatic innervations

B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2

C. the pudendal nerve

D. the obturator nerve