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4

What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?

A. somatic innervations

B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2

C. the pudendal nerve

D. the obturator nerve

Correct Answer :

C. the pudendal nerve


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

Which structure is a part of the renal hilum?

A. renal pelvis

B. branches of the renal artery

C. tributaries of renal vein

D. all of the above

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4

The majority of circulating testosterone is:

A. bound to sex hormone-binding globulin

B. free

C. bound to α1-antichymotrypsin

D. bound to albumin

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4

At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?

A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter

B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter

C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele

D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele

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4

To which region does pain, from the left mid ureter, refer to?

A. the loin region

B. the inguinal region

C. the umbilical region

D. the penis or clitoris

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4

Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?

A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis

B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail

C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation

D. shares the same blood supply of the testis

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4

What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?

A. dehydration

B. myoglobinuria

C. high doses of vitamin C

D. all of the above

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone

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4

When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?

A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months

B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml

C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml

D. any of the above

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4

Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?

A. intimal fibroplasia

B. medial fibroplasia

C. medial hyperplasia

D. serosal hyperplasia

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4

Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?

A. opening of internal bladder sphincter

B. fall in urethral pressure

C. rise in intravesical pressure

D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity

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4

What is the creatinine clearance in ml/min for a 70 kg man aging 50 yrs. with 1.1 mg/dL serum creatinine?

A. 79.54

B. 44.19

C. 84.15

D. 94.25

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4

What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 10

D. 5

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4

Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?

A. cystoscopy

B. CT urography

C. urine cytology

D. all of the above

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4

The epithelial component of the prostate consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. basal cells

B. intermediate cells

C. tubulo-columnar cells

D. neuroendocrine cells

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4

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypocitraturia?

A. high protein diet

B. hypokalaemia

C. proximal renal tubular acidosis

D. idiopathic

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4

What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?

A. aminoglycosides

B. αantipseudomonal penicillins

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?

A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents

B. causes injection site reactions

C. is active against most uropathogens

D. is effective as a single-dose agent

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4

Branches of what artery travel under the endopelvic fascia form the prostate to the sidewall of the pelvis?

A. obturator artery

B. midrectal artery

C. inferior vesical artery

D. pudendal artery

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4

Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?

A. superior vesical artery

B. inferior vesical artery

C. superior gluteal artery

D. inferior gluteal artery

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

What is the half-life of β-HCG?

A. 5 7 days

B. 24 36 hours

C. 2 3 days

D. 12 24 hours

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4

What are the posterior relations of the kidneys?

A. quadratus lumborum and diaphragm

B. psoas and diaphragm

C. psoas and latissimus dorsi

D. transversus abdominus and paraspinous

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4

Which statement concerning urine pH is false?

A. influenced by food and medications

B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range

C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection

D. ranges from 4 7

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4

On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?

A. lower ureteral stricture

B. ureteral valve

C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation

D. residual dilation of hydroureter

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4

Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. fibromuscular stroma

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4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

At which week of gestation do the primordial germ cells migrate to form the genital ridges?

A. third

B. fourth

C. fifth

D. seventh

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4

Which artery(ies) supply(ies) the prostate?

A. middle rectal

B. inferior vesical

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

Which nephron segment contains the most diluted urine in central diabetes insipidus patient?

A. proximal convoluted tubules

B. distal convoluted tubules

C. collecting duct

D. loop of Henle