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Current Affairs January 2024

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4

What is false concerning the presentation of prostatitis syndrome?

A. type I could harbor prostate abscess

B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections

C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints

D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms

Correct Answer :

C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints


type III-b presentation might include psychological complaints pertaining to anxiety, stress, and depression.

Related Questions

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4

What is the most commonly affected organ by genitourinary Brucellosis?

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

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4

Why could pyuria be sterile?

A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms

B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine

C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen

D. all of the above

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4

Which treatment modality has NO proven efficacy in CP/CPPS?

A. selective nerve block

B. balloon dilation

C. botulinum A toxin injection

D. ESWL

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4

What is false regarding Gonorrheal STD in women?

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks

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4

What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

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4

What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%

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4

What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?

A. aminoglycoside

B. fluoroquinolone

C. 2nd generation cephalosporin

D. doxycycline

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4

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?

A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion

B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention

C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide

D. low dose external beam irradiation

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4

What is false regarding malakoplakia?

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

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4

What are the target immune cells for HIV?

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

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4

What is false concerning the management of genitourinary TB?

A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications

B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy

C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid

D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture

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4

What are the commonest organisms causing acute epididymitis in males younger than 35 yrs.?

A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis

B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species

C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species

D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis

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4

What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?

A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction

B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy

C. has no specific medical therapy

D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria

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4

What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

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4

A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

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4

What condition is associated with renal papillary necrosis?

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis

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4

What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

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4

What virus(s) could cause orchitis?

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

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4

What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above

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4

What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

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4

What is the likelihood of contracting gonorrheal disease following a single intercourse with an infected woman?

A. 1.7%

B. 7%

C. 17%

D. 71%

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4

What is true regarding honeymoon cystitis?

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

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4

What is false concerning urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

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4

What type of human Herpes virus is implicated in all forms of Kaposi sarcoma?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

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4

The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:

A. P blood-group antigen

B. P fimbriae in descending infections

C. emolysins

D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections

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4

What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

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4

What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

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4

What is false regarding viral cystitis?

A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis

B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35

C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine

D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific

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4

What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

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4

What is true concerning malakoplakia?

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes