A. selective nerve block

B. balloon dilation

C. botulinum A toxin injection

D. ESWL

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. inadequately treated UTI

B. renal papillary necrosis

C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis

D. urinary tract tuberculosis

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill

B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse

C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock

A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium

B. harbors p53 gene mutations

C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding

D. the lesion requires transurethral resection

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

A. von Hippel-Lindau disease

B. tuberous sclerosis

C. cystic fibrosis

D. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

A. is always asymptomatic

B. it shows a serological immune antibody response

C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria

D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria

A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine

B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis

D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. asymptomatic bacteriuria

B. sterile pyouria

C. bacterial colonization

D. unresolved bacteriuria

A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag

B. daily cleansing the external meatus

C. placing the urine bag on the floor

D. changing the urine bag once it is full

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile