A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis

B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species

C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species

D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection

B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices

C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages

D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

A. greater than 8 fold

B. greater than 6 fold

C. greater than 4 fold

D. comparable

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction

B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein

C. commonly, occurs at the left side

D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy

A. a history of repeated urologic and/or gynecologic procedures

B. 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems

C. 4 fold higher incidence of anxiety-depression syndrome

D. 6 fold higher incidence of psychosomatic disorders

A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi

B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis

C. schistosomiasis cystitis

D. inverted papilloma of the bladder

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks

B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do

C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years

D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. acute epididymitis

B. indwelling urethral catheters

C. transurethral surgery

D. all of the above

A. type II

B. type III-a

C. type III-b

D. type IV

A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis

B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35

C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine

D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins