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Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning the management of genitourinary TB?

A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications

B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy

C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid

D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture

Correct Answer :

A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications


draining active TB infection is discouraged as it helps spread of the infection and the formation fistula tract.

Related Questions

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4

What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?

A. aminoglycoside

B. fluoroquinolone

C. 2nd generation cephalosporin

D. doxycycline

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4

What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

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4

Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

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4

What does NOT predispose to acute epididymitis is:

A. TUR ejaculatory duct

B. prolonged urethral catheterization

C. prostatic biopsy

D. vas ligation

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4

A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

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4

What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

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4

What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?

A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion

B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention

C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide

D. low dose external beam irradiation

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4

In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

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4

During the initial 3-month period of HIV infection, what would be the best diagnostic lab test?

A. viral load assay

B. western blot analysis

C. southern blot analysis

D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay

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4

What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

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4

What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

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4

What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

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4

What is false regarding prostatic abscesses?

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

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4

What is the commonest cause of relapsing UTI in males?

A. chronic epididymitis

B. epididymo-orchitis

C. chronic bacterial prostatitis

D. venereal cysto-urethritis

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4

What is false regarding malakoplakia?

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

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4

What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

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4

Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

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4

What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

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4

What is false about urinary catheters?

A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon

D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters

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4

What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

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4

What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

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4

What kind of cystitis does NOT progress to malignancy?

A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi

B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis

C. schistosomiasis cystitis

D. inverted papilloma of the bladder

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4

What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?

A. acute epididymitis

B. indwelling urethral catheters

C. transurethral surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What is the likelihood of contracting gonorrheal disease following a single intercourse with an infected woman?

A. 1.7%

B. 7%

C. 17%

D. 71%

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4

What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?

A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS

B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination

C. the presence of ≥10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b

D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a

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4

What is the most commonly affected organ by genitourinary Brucellosis?

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

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4

What is false concerning foreign body cystitis?

A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters

B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder

C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema

D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder