A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis

B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35

C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine

D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis

B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis

C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis

D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks

A. cystitis glandularis

B. cystitis cystica

C. esinophilic cystitis

D. cystitis follicularis

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill

B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse

C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

A. natural sloughing of bladder mucosa

B. voiding

C. urine osmolarity

D. urine pH

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

A. TUR ejaculatory duct

B. prolonged urethral catheterization

C. prostatic biopsy

D. vas ligation

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition

B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria

C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters

D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above