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4

What is false concerning prostatic stones?

A. composed of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

B. the vast majority are asymptomatic

C. most of the calculi are found in the transitional zone

D. they dont affect PSA levels

Correct Answer :

C. most of the calculi are found in the transitional zone


The majority of stones are found in the posterior and posterolateral zones of the prostate.

Related Questions

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

What is the least likely condition to form bladder stones?

A. spinal cord injury

B. senile enlargement of prostate

C. augmented bladder

D. neurogenic hyper-reflexive bladder

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4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

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4

What is false concerning urethral stones?

A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder

B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel

C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin

D. respond to Holmium laser treatment

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4

Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?

A. short and wide infundibulum

B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle

C. the adjunct usage of PCNL

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?

A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication

B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis

C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough

D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria

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4

What medication(s) could be helpful in the management of cystinuria?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. d-Penicillamine

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels

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4

What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?

A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption

B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium

C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase

D. hypercalcemia

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4

Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?

A. wet chemical analysis

B. thermogravimetry

C. scanning electron microscopy

D. none of the above

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4

What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?

A. 1000 - 1300 HU density

B. 5 - 10 mm diameter

C. lower calyx location

D. mid ureteral location

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4

What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?

A. Ca.phosphate

B. Ca.oxalate

C. Na.urate

D. struvite

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4

ESWL in pediatric patients is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. often need sedation or anesthesia

B. vesico-ureteral reflux must be excluded

C. pediatrics have a higher clearance rate of stones when compared to adults

D. safety measures must be taken to avoid lung contusions

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL

C. radial nephrolithotomy

D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting

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4

Invasive intervention in stone patients is NOT indicated in the following condition:

A. stone size

B. unrelieved obstruction

C. infection and septicemia

D. recurrent stone formation

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4

What parameter impairs the kidney stone-free rate, after ESWL?

A. short skin-to-stone distance (SSD)

B. end-stage renal failure

C. a stone in the upper calyx

D. the presence of a 30 cm, 4.7 Fr ureteral stent in situ

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4

What is false concerning preputial stones?

A. form due to inspissated smegma

B. form due to stasis of urinary salts

C. cause inguinal lymphadenopathy

D. often associated with phimosis in uncircumcised males

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4

What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?

A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure

B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic

C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature

D. it is indicated when stones are ≤ 4 mm in diameter

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4

What is the first-line treatment of kidney stones of a burden greater than 2 cm?

A. ESWL

B. URS

C. PCNL

D. none of the above

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of hospitalization of ureteral stone patients?

A. steinstrasse

B. a stone in ureterocele

C. fever, leucocytosis, pain

D. brushite stones

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4

When urine reaches a high tendency to form stones, the situation is called:

A. lithogenic anion to cation ratio

B. Randall cut off

C. saturation index

D. solubility product

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4

What is false concerning recurrent stone formation?

A. best treated by total parathyroidectomy

B. first-time stone formers are at a 50% risk for recurrence

C. males have higher recurrence rate than females

D. stone formers produce stones of the same type every time

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4

What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?

A. fungal ball

B. radiolucent stone

C. urothelial growth

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent

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4

What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?

A. xanthine

B. ammonium urate

C. cystine

D. calcium oxalate dihydrate

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4

What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?

A. stone chemical composition

B. stone burden

C. first stone vs. recurrent

D. stone density

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4

What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?

A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx

B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney

C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior

D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture

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4

What is the most appropriate antibiotic class for prophylaxis before urologic surgery?

A. aminoglycosides

B. macrolides

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

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4

Which of the following bacteria split urea?

A. Klebsiella pneumonia

B. Morganella morganii

C. Proteus mirabilis

D. all of the above

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia