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4

In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?

A. VB1 and VB3

B. prostatic secretions and the VB3

C. prostatic secretions and the VB2

D. prostatic secretions and the VB1

Correct Answer :

B. prostatic secretions and the VB3


bacterial prostatitis is confirmed by the presence of bacteria in the prostatic secretions and in the VB3 (post-prostatic massage) urine sample in numbers greatly exceeding the bacterial counts of the VB1 and VB2 urine samples.

Related Questions

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4

What is false concerning radiation cystitis?

A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks

B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do

C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years

D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy

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4

What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding genitourinary TB?

A. commonly, TB enters the urinary tract via intravesical instillation of attenuated live BCG to treat bladder cancer

B. CT urography may show infundibular stricture with or without hydrocalicosis

C. renal ultrasonography reveals calyceal erosions moth-eaten calyx

D. TB of the vas appears, clinically, as a thin hard strictured tube

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4

What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

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4

The relative risk of prostate cancer in men with HIV compared to uninfected individuals is:

A. greater than 8 fold

B. greater than 6 fold

C. greater than 4 fold

D. comparable

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4

What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

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4

What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?

A. aminoglycoside

B. fluoroquinolone

C. 2nd generation cephalosporin

D. doxycycline

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4

Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

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4

What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

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4

What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

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4

No need for radiologic studies for recurrent UTI in:

A. children

B. the elderly

C. men

D. women

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4

What is false regarding the etiology and treatment of orchialgia syndrome?

A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia

B. might respond to a selective nerve block

C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis

D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain

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4

What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

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4

What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?

A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling

B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough

C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure

D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia

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4

What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?

A. characterized by neurovirulence

B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks

C. HSV can be isolated in the urine

D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does

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4

What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary schistosomiasis?

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

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4

Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

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4

What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

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4

Ureteral dilation in schistosomiasis could be due to:

A. vesicoureteral reflux

B. stenosis of the lower ureter

C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis

D. any of the above

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4

What is false concerning epididymitis?

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

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4

What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

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4

What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?

A. acute epididymitis

B. indwelling urethral catheters

C. transurethral surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What is false regarding cystitis cystica?

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

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4

What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning HIV infection?

A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count

B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies

C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious

D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons

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4

What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

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4

What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?

A. fever, chills, abdominal pain

B. costovertibral angle tenderness

C. hypogastric and loin pain

D. flank pain, dysuria

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4

What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

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4

What condition causes sterile pyuria?

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

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4

What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above