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4

What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

Correct Answer :

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa


no pathognomonic histology is present for interstitial cystitis. Basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis.

Related Questions

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4

All of the following etiologies for interstitial cystitis have been theorized, EXCEPT:

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

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4

What is true concerning HIV infection?

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

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4

Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

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4

What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

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4

What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

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4

What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

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4

What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

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4

Ureteral dilation in schistosomiasis could be due to:

A. vesicoureteral reflux

B. stenosis of the lower ureter

C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis

D. any of the above

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4

Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:

A. in the elderly

B. in long-term catheterized patient

C. in pregnancy

D. none of the above

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4

What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?

A. patients with indwelling catheters

B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

C. pregnant women

D. children under 5 years

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4

What virus(s) could cause orchitis?

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

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4

What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

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4

What antimicrobial agent treats UTI and does NOT alter the gut flora?

A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

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4

What is false concerning foreign body cystitis?

A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters

B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder

C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema

D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

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4

What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

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4

What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

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4

What is essential on diagnosing bladder pain syndrome BPS/IC?

A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures

B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy

C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder

D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection

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4

What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

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4

What is false concerning chronic orchialgia syndrome?

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

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4

What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?

A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium

B. harbors p53 gene mutations

C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding

D. the lesion requires transurethral resection

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4

What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

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4

What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

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4

As per NIH classification of prostatitis, which type requires no treatment?

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

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4

What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?

A. fever, chills, abdominal pain

B. costovertibral angle tenderness

C. hypogastric and loin pain

D. flank pain, dysuria

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4

What is false regarding Gonorrheal STD in women?

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks

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4

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

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4

What type of human Herpes virus is implicated in all forms of Kaposi sarcoma?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

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4

What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

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4

What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?

A. asymptomatic bacteriuria

B. sterile pyouria

C. bacterial colonization

D. unresolved bacteriuria

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4

What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking