A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

A. von Hippel-Lindau disease

B. tuberous sclerosis

C. cystic fibrosis

D. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count

B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies

C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious

D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons

A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis

B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis

C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis

D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium

B. harbors p53 gene mutations

C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding

D. the lesion requires transurethral resection

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

A. type II

B. type III-a

C. type III-b

D. type IV

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

A. selective nerve block

B. balloon dilation

C. botulinum A toxin injection

D. ESWL

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge

B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic

C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes

D. responds fairly to azithromycin

A. acute epididymitis

B. indwelling urethral catheters

C. transurethral surgery

D. all of the above

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. mode of administration

B. level in the serum

C. level in the urine

D. dosage

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

A. in the elderly

B. in long-term catheterized patient

C. in pregnancy

D. none of the above

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%