A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. VB1 and VB3

B. prostatic secretions and the VB3

C. prostatic secretions and the VB2

D. prostatic secretions and the VB1

A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis

B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35

C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine

D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific

A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells

B. vaginal dryness

C. O serogroup

D. vaginal pH

A. inadequately treated UTI

B. renal papillary necrosis

C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis

D. urinary tract tuberculosis

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen

B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency

C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness

D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction

B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy

C. has no specific medical therapy

D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

A. cystitis glandularis

B. cystitis cystica

C. esinophilic cystitis

D. cystitis follicularis

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. sulfonamide for several months

B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging

C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation

A. fever and chills

B. suprapubic pain and pyuria

C. flank pain and tenderness

D. none of the above

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection

B. urine culture might be negative

C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis

D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes