A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. selective nerve block

B. balloon dilation

C. botulinum A toxin injection

D. ESWL

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals

B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals

C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection

D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery

A. 1.7%

B. 7%

C. 17%

D. 71%

A. vesicoureteral reflux

B. stenosis of the lower ureter

C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis

D. any of the above

A. Kaposi sarcoma,

B. Hodgkin lymphoma

C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

D. cervical cancer

A. TUR ejaculatory duct

B. prolonged urethral catheterization

C. prostatic biopsy

D. vas ligation

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI

B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. scrotal support and elevation

B. ice packs

C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

D. urethral catheterization

A. asymptomatic bacteriuria

B. sterile pyouria

C. bacterial colonization

D. unresolved bacteriuria

A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms

B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine

C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen

D. all of the above

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium

B. harbors p53 gene mutations

C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding

D. the lesion requires transurethral resection

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks

B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do

C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years

D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy

A. Hunner`s ulcers are multiple ulcerative patches surrounded by mucosal congestion on the dome or lateral walls

B. ulcers might get distorted after overdistention, because discrete areas of mucosal scarring rupture during the procedure

C. in non-ulcerative type, overdistention demonstrates glomerulations on the dome and lateral walls

D. overdistention results in mucosal tears and submucosal hemorrhage

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

A. is always asymptomatic

B. it shows a serological immune antibody response

C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria

D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks