A. children

B. the elderly

C. men

D. women

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

A. characterized by neurovirulence

B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks

C. HSV can be isolated in the urine

D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks

B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do

C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years

D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles

B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains

C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC

D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes

A. 43%

B. 53%

C. 63%

D. 73%

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin

A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection

B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices

C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages

D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract

A. fever and chills

B. suprapubic pain and pyuria

C. flank pain and tenderness

D. none of the above

A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters

B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder

C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema

D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis

B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species

C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species

D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis

A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count

B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies

C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious

D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons

A. Kaposi sarcoma,

B. Hodgkin lymphoma

C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

D. cervical cancer

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis

B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35

C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine

D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals

B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals

C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection

D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. viral load assay

B. western blot analysis

C. southern blot analysis

D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay

A. type II

B. type III-a

C. type III-b

D. type IV