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Current Affairs January 2024

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4

What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

Correct Answer :

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent


cleansing the urethral meatus is not at a recommendation level.

Related Questions

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4

What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?

A. asymptomatic bacteriuria

B. sterile pyouria

C. bacterial colonization

D. unresolved bacteriuria

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4

What is true concerning the definition of UTI in women, based on culture results from a suprapubic aspirate of urine?

A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI

B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

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4

What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

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4

What is false concerning the presentation of prostatitis syndrome?

A. type I could harbor prostate abscess

B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections

C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints

D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms

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4

What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

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4

What is true regarding Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?

A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign

B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones

C. nephrectomy is the treatment

D. all of the above

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4

What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?

A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis

B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis

C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa

D. none of the above

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4

What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

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4

What is the likelihood of contracting gonorrheal disease following a single intercourse with an infected woman?

A. 1.7%

B. 7%

C. 17%

D. 71%

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4

What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor

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4

Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

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4

What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

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4

What is the most significant complication of papillary necrosis?

A. ureteral obstruction

B. proteinuria

C. stone formation

D. renal scarring

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4

What is false concerning epididymitis?

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

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4

What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin

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4

What is false regarding malakoplakia?

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

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4

Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

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4

What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

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4

What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

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4

What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

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4

What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

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4

What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?

A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS

B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination

C. the presence of ≥10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b

D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a

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4

HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:

A. Kaposi sarcoma,

B. Hodgkin lymphoma

C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

D. cervical cancer

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4

Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to facilitation of microbial ascent?

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

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4

What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding honeymoon cystitis?

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

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4

What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

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4

What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?

A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling

B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough

C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure

D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia

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4

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?

A. inflammatory bowel disease

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

D. fibromyalgia

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4

What is NOT a complication of mumps orchitis?

A. infertility

B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor

D. chronic orchalgia