A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. vesicoureteral reflux

B. stenosis of the lower ureter

C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis

D. any of the above

A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters

B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder

C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema

D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine

B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis

D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count

B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies

C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious

D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling

B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough

C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure

D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia

A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag

B. daily cleansing the external meatus

C. placing the urine bag on the floor

D. changing the urine bag once it is full

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi

B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis

C. schistosomiasis cystitis

D. inverted papilloma of the bladder

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion

B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention

C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide

D. low dose external beam irradiation

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. type I could harbor prostate abscess

B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections

C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints

D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms

A. cystitis glandularis

B. cystitis cystica

C. esinophilic cystitis

D. cystitis follicularis

A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas

B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed

C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell

D. surgical debridement often spares the testes

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge

B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic

C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes

D. responds fairly to azithromycin

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8