A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications

B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy

C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid

D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill

B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse

C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction

B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein

C. commonly, occurs at the left side

D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy

A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis

B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis

C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis

D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

A. TUR ejaculatory duct

B. prolonged urethral catheterization

C. prostatic biopsy

D. vas ligation

A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis

B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species

C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species

D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

A. fever, chills, abdominal pain

B. costovertibral angle tenderness

C. hypogastric and loin pain

D. flank pain, dysuria

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

A. bladder epithelial cells

B. type C nerve endings in the bladder

C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder

D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle

A. children

B. the elderly

C. men

D. women

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge

B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic

C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes

D. responds fairly to azithromycin

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. scrotal support and elevation

B. ice packs

C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

D. urethral catheterization

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

A. a cause of obstruction should be sought

B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function

C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections

D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1

A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI

B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above