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4

What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?

A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment

B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment

C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months

D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice

Correct Answer :

D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice


surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the optimum treatment.

Related Questions

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4

What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?

A. 3 6 %

B. 12 15 %

C. 0.4 0.8 %

D. 0.09 0.14 %

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

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4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

What is a remarkable disadvantage of ultrasonic imaging for ESWL?

A. localization of stones in the ureter is difficult or impossible

B. inability to visualize stones breaking down in real time

C. c. patient`s position on ESWL table is uncomfortable

D. d. inability to visualize radiolucent stones

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4

What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?

A. ammonium urate

B. sodium urate

C. calcium oxalate

D. calcium phosphate

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4

Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:

A. calcium monohydrate

B. calcium oxalate

C. ammonium urate

D. none of the above

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4

In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?

A. indinavir

B. magnesium ammonium phosphate

C. xanthine

D. matrix

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4

What is the first-line treatment of kidney stones of a burden greater than 2 cm?

A. ESWL

B. URS

C. PCNL

D. none of the above

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4

As per the fixed particle theory of stone formation:

A. the initial step is papillary plaque formation

B. crystals formation occurs inside the nephron

C. tubular precipitates form harmless crystalluria

D. the attraction of organic compounds and activation crystallization is regulated by osteopontin

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4

What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?

A. stone chemical composition

B. stone burden

C. first stone vs. recurrent

D. stone density

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4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis

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4

What is false concerning prostatic stones?

A. composed of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

B. the vast majority are asymptomatic

C. most of the calculi are found in the transitional zone

D. they dont affect PSA levels

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4

What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?

A. urate

B. triple phosphate

C. oxalate monohydrate

D. matrix

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4

How does oral Mg.citrate inhibit Ca.oxalate stone formation?

A. by lowering urinary saturation of Ca.oxalate

B. by preventing heterogeneous nucleation of Ca.oxalate

C. by inhibiting spontaneous precipitation and agglomeration of Ca.oxalate

D. by all of the above

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4

What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?

A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment

B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment

C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months

D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice

What is the correct answer?

4

Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?

A. can be forgotten in place

B. vesico-renal reflux

C. calyceal perforation

D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria

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4

What is the Hounsfield density range of uric acid stones?

A. 400 600 HU

B. 600 800 HU

C. 800 1000 HU

D. 1000 1200 HU

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4

What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. acetohydroxamic acid

C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors

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4

How is primary oxaluria treated?

A. terminal ilium resection

B. liver transplantation

C. kidney transplantation

D. regular hemodialysis

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4

What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?

A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position

B. making the puncture under local anesthesia

C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing

D. making the puncture during full expiration

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4

What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?

A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication

B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis

C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough

D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning staghorn calculus?

A. commonly unilateral

B. commonly due to repeated infections

C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi

D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of using DJ ureteral catheters?

A. to stent the ureter after ureteral surgery

B. to facilitate stone passage

C. after a tough ureteroscopy procedure

D. all of the above

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4

What is the immediate management of ureteral avulsion on retrieving an upper ureteral stone by a basket?

A. placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain

B. surgical exploration and primary repair

C. conservative management

D. endoscopic retrograde ureteral stenting

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4

What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?

A. 0 10%

B. 10 20%

C. 20 30%

D. 30 40%

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4

What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?

A. 1000 - 1300 HU density

B. 5 - 10 mm diameter

C. lower calyx location

D. mid ureteral location

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4

What is true concerning uric acid stones?

A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH

B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT

C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease

D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein

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4

What is the least likely condition to form bladder stones?

A. spinal cord injury

B. senile enlargement of prostate

C. augmented bladder

D. neurogenic hyper-reflexive bladder