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What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

Correct Answer :

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane


the biopsy path is best visualized in the sagittal plane.

Related Questions

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4

What is false regarding the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

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4

What is true about the usefulness of Gleason scoring system?

A. used to stage prostate cancer

B. a specimen of grade 3 + 4 is worse than 4 + 3

C. a sum of 6 suggests an intermediate risk for aggressive cancer

D. it has a role in guiding the appropriate treatment options

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4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

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4

What is false concerning the interpretation of Gleason scoring system?

A. a low score means the cancer tissue is similar to normal prostate tissue

B. it indicates how likely the tumor will spread

C. the more cellular atypia observed the higher scoring will be

D. it relies only on the glandular architectural pattern

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4

What is true concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. hematospermia might persist for 4 6 weeks after taking biopsies

B. quinolone antibiotics prophylaxis eliminate possible infections

C. the right lateral decubitus position is commonly preferred

D. only hypoechoic lesions should be biopsied

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4

Which factor is closely related to the return to urinary continence function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

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4

Which factor(s) determine(s) the return to normal erectile function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What class of prostate cancer medications causes an initial increase in LH, FSH levels and consequently a rise in testosterone level for few weeks?

A. GnRH agonists

B. antiandrogens

C. antimicrotubular

D. bisphosphonates

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4

What is the primary mechanism of prostate tissue ablation using high-intensity focused ultrasound?

A. disruption of protein synthesis

B. coagulative necrosis

C. cell wall destruction

D. DNA damage

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4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

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4

Solid lesions in the seminal vesicles are most likely to be a result of:

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

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4

What if false concerning the prostate cancer marker PCA3?

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

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4

During retropubic radical prostatectomy, what complication could be encountered on dividing the dorsal vein complex anteriorly?

A. incontinence

B. retrograde ejaculation

C. impotence

D. anejaculation

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4

What is false regarding prostate adenocarcinoma in the peripheral zone?

A. 85% of prostate adenocarcinomas are located in the peripheral zone

B. 15% of them are multifocal

C. they tend to extend outside the prostate through the perineural space

D. the presence of perineural invasion does not worsen the prognosis

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4

Ectopic expression of PSA occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. thyroid gland

B. breast tissue

C. adrenal glands

D. renal carcinomas

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4

In which of the following PSA readings prostate cancer is least suspected?

A. PSA velocity of 0.35 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is ≤ 2.5 ng/mL

B. PSA velocity of 0.75 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is 4 10 ng/mL

C. t-PSA is 2.8 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.94 ng/mL

D. t-PSA is 3.7 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.51 ng/mL

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4

In descending order, to where do prostate cancers metastasize?

A. lymph nodes, bone, lung, bladder, liver, and adrenal glands

B. bone, lung, lymph nodes, liver, bladder, and adrenal glands

C. lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone, adrenal glands, and bladder

D. liver, lung, bone, lymph nodes, bladder, and adrenal glands

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4

For prostate cancer patients, what do Partin tables predict?

A. survival rate

B. pathologic stage

C. extracapsular extension

D. lymph node involvement

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4

What pathologic findings after radical prostatectomy are predictive for occult metastases?

A. seminal vesicle invasion and lymph node metastases

B. positive surgical margins and seminal vesicle involvement

C. capsular penetration and lymph node metastases

D. rectal and bladder neck involvement

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4

What is false concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

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4

What is the commonest complication of high-intensity focused ultrasound on treating localized prostate cancer?

A. temporary incontinence

B. vasculogenic impotence

C. urinary retention

D. hyper-reflexive detrusor

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4

What is true surrounding PSA?

A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do

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4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting is a reasonable option for:

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

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4

Regarding radical prostatectomy, the commonest site of positive surgical margins is the:

A. apex

B. posterior

C. postero-lateral

D. anterior

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4

BPH patients on finasteride longer than 6 months are expected to have:

A. decreased t-PSA but increased f-PSA

B. decreased t-PSA but unaltered f-PSA

C. decreased t-PSA and decreased f-PSA

D. any of the above

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4

What are the clinical parameters of tissue ablation achieved by cryotherapy for cancer cells destruction?

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

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4

Regarding chemotherapy for prostate cancers, nonsteroidal antiandrogens will result in:

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

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4

In descending order, the commonest complications of external beam radiation therapy for prostate cancer are:

A. urethral stricture, impotence, and rectal bleeding

B. impotence, rectal bleeding, and urethral stricture

C. impotence, urethral stricture, and rectal bleeding

D. rectal bleeding, impotence, and urethral stricture

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4

Which PSA value interpretation is incorrect?

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease