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Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

Ectopic expression of PSA occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. thyroid gland

B. breast tissue

C. adrenal glands

D. renal carcinomas

Correct Answer :

A. thyroid gland


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

Following bilateral orchiectomy for prostate cancer, testosterone will:

A. initially drop to nadir, and then recover over 2 weeks

B. decline by 50% within 2 weeks and then normalize

C. decline by 90% within 24 hours

D. decline by 70%

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4

Genetically, what are the changes associated with poor survival in prostate cancer patients?

A. loss of one or both copies of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN

B. TMPRSS2ERG chromosome fusion

C. P53 mutations and overexpression of MYC

D. all of the above

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4

What is against using TRUS-guided therapy for focal prostate cancer?

A. it overdiagnoses clinically insignificant cancers

B. it misses clinically significant cancers in the anterior or apical regions

C. it may underrepresent true cancer burden

D. all of the above

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4

What is the proper pre-treatment risk stratification of prostate cancer for a patient with T2a, PSA < 11 ng/mL, and no Gleason score > 6?

A. low risk

B. intermediate risk

C. high risk

D. data not adequate

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4

What is false regarding the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

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4

BPH patients on finasteride longer than 6 months are expected to have:

A. decreased t-PSA but increased f-PSA

B. decreased t-PSA but unaltered f-PSA

C. decreased t-PSA and decreased f-PSA

D. any of the above

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4

Screening for prostate cancer is recommended for men who are:

A. at average risk, aging 50 yrs., and have at least a 10-year life expectancy

B. aging 40 yrs., and had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

C. aging 40 yrs., African Americans

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding seminal vesicles` involvement in prostate cancer?

A. is almost always due to direct extension (T2c)

B. it is involved in 85% of positive surgical margins following radical prostatectomy

C. it carries a poor prognosis

D. none of the above

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4

What is false concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

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4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

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4

What if false concerning the prostate cancer marker PCA3?

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

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4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting strategy involves:

A. periodic PSA testing

B. periodic TRUS

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

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4

All of the following modalities are used as salvage therapies after failing radiation therapy for prostate cancer treatment, EXCEPT:

A. cryotherapy

B. chemotherapy

C. brachytherapy

D. radical prostatectomy

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4

What is the first-line chemotherapeutic agent for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer?

A. bisphosphonate

B. docetaxel

C. sipuleucel-T

D. enzalutamide

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4

Clinically significant prostate cancer is defined as:

A. volume ≥ 0.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 4

B. volume ≥ 0.8 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 4

C. volume ≥ 1.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 3

D. volume ≥ 1.0 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 3

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4

Genetically, increased risk of prostate cancer has been found in men with:

A. variants in the 8q24 region on chromosome 8, in sporadic cases

B. alterations on chromosome 1, chromosome 17, and the X chromosome, in some familial cases

C. the human prostate cancer gene is on the X chromosome

D. all are true

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4

What is false concerning antiandrogen class of prostate cancer medications?

A. commonly used in combination with a GnRH agonist

B. less effective than medical or surgical castration

C. not recommended for localized prostate cancer

D. inhibits various cytochrome P-450 enzymes

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4

What is the commonest complication of high-intensity focused ultrasound on treating localized prostate cancer?

A. temporary incontinence

B. vasculogenic impotence

C. urinary retention

D. hyper-reflexive detrusor

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4

What is the likelihood that patients with positive surgical margins after radical prostatectomy will be cured for prostate cancer?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

Which PSA value interpretation is incorrect?

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

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4

What are the clinical parameters of tissue ablation achieved by cryotherapy for cancer cells destruction?

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

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4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

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4

Which factor is closely related to the return to urinary continence function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

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4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

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4

Regarding chemotherapy for prostate cancers, nonsteroidal antiandrogens will result in:

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

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4

In descending order, the commonest complications of external beam radiation therapy for prostate cancer are:

A. urethral stricture, impotence, and rectal bleeding

B. impotence, rectal bleeding, and urethral stricture

C. impotence, urethral stricture, and rectal bleeding

D. rectal bleeding, impotence, and urethral stricture

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4

Which factor(s) determine(s) the return to normal erectile function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What pathologic findings after radical prostatectomy are predictive for occult metastases?

A. seminal vesicle invasion and lymph node metastases

B. positive surgical margins and seminal vesicle involvement

C. capsular penetration and lymph node metastases

D. rectal and bladder neck involvement

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4

What is false regarding prostate adenocarcinoma in the peripheral zone?

A. 85% of prostate adenocarcinomas are located in the peripheral zone

B. 15% of them are multifocal

C. they tend to extend outside the prostate through the perineural space

D. the presence of perineural invasion does not worsen the prognosis

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4

What class of prostate cancer medications causes an initial increase in LH, FSH levels and consequently a rise in testosterone level for few weeks?

A. GnRH agonists

B. antiandrogens

C. antimicrotubular

D. bisphosphonates