A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

A. volume ≥ 0.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 4

B. volume ≥ 0.8 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 4

C. volume ≥ 1.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 3

D. volume ≥ 1.0 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 3

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

A. normal DRE, abnormal PSA

B. abnormal DRE, abnormal PSA

C. abnormal DRE, normal PSA

D. hyperechoic areas on TRUS

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

A. pathological bone fractures

B. biochemical failure following radiation therapy

C. hepato-renal disease following chemotherapy

D. upgrading the pre-treatment risk stratification

A. periodic PSA testing

B. periodic TRUS

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

A. apex

B. posterior

C. postero-lateral

D. anterior

A. the most common cause of mortality in men with prostate cancer is cardiac disease

B. is the second most common cause of cancer death in males

C. androgens have a pivotal role in prostate cancer development

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer

A. at average risk, aging 50 yrs., and have at least a 10-year life expectancy

B. aging 40 yrs., and had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

C. aging 40 yrs., African Americans

D. all of the above

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

A. hematospermia might persist for 4 6 weeks after taking biopsies

B. quinolone antibiotics prophylaxis eliminate possible infections

C. the right lateral decubitus position is commonly preferred

D. only hypoechoic lesions should be biopsied

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

A. initially drop to nadir, and then recover over 2 weeks

B. decline by 50% within 2 weeks and then normalize

C. decline by 90% within 24 hours

D. decline by 70%

A.

B. ¼

C. ½

D.

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

A. preoperative clinical stage, PSA level, and Gleason sum

B. seminal vesicle invasion, lymph node metastases, and Gleason sum

C. positive surgical margins, capsular penetration, and PSA level

D. PSA level, perineural invasion, vascular metastasis, and Gleason sum

A. is almost always due to direct extension (T2c)

B. it is involved in 85% of positive surgical margins following radical prostatectomy

C. it carries a poor prognosis

D. none of the above

A. thyroid gland

B. breast tissue

C. adrenal glands

D. renal carcinomas

A. cryotherapy

B. chemotherapy

C. brachytherapy

D. radical prostatectomy

A. lymph nodes, bone, lung, bladder, liver, and adrenal glands

B. bone, lung, lymph nodes, liver, bladder, and adrenal glands

C. lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone, adrenal glands, and bladder

D. liver, lung, bone, lymph nodes, bladder, and adrenal glands

A. prostate cancer

B. corpora amylacea

C. transitional zone

D. tuberculous prostatitis

A. slow thawing is more effective than rapid thawing

B. the most common complication is erectile dysfunction

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended

D. the two most common modalities employed in focal therapy are highintensity focused ultrasound and cryosurgery

A. ranges from 0 -10 based on a histologic evaluation of tumor specimens

B. based on the 2 most common histologic patterns

C. greatly relies on the skills and experience of the pathologist

D. a score of 7 indicates a moderate-grade or moderately differentiated tumor

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

A. hypoxia and acidosis

B. tachycardia and tachypnea

C. bradycardia and hypotension

D. hypercarbia and oliguria