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4

In descending order, the commonest complications of external beam radiation therapy for prostate cancer are:

A. urethral stricture, impotence, and rectal bleeding

B. impotence, rectal bleeding, and urethral stricture

C. impotence, urethral stricture, and rectal bleeding

D. rectal bleeding, impotence, and urethral stricture

Correct Answer :

B. impotence, rectal bleeding, and urethral stricture


impotence in 50%, rectal bleeding in 10%, urethral stricture is far less.

Related Questions

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4

What is true regarding seminal vesicles` involvement in prostate cancer?

A. is almost always due to direct extension (T2c)

B. it is involved in 85% of positive surgical margins following radical prostatectomy

C. it carries a poor prognosis

D. none of the above

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4

What is the first-line chemotherapeutic agent for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer?

A. bisphosphonate

B. docetaxel

C. sipuleucel-T

D. enzalutamide

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4

What is the proper pre-treatment risk stratification of prostate cancer for a patient with T2a, PSA < 11 ng/mL, and no Gleason score > 6?

A. low risk

B. intermediate risk

C. high risk

D. data not adequate

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4

Which factor(s) determine(s) the return to normal erectile function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

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4

What are the clinical parameters of tissue ablation achieved by cryotherapy for cancer cells destruction?

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

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4

What class of prostate cancer medications causes an initial increase in LH, FSH levels and consequently a rise in testosterone level for few weeks?

A. GnRH agonists

B. antiandrogens

C. antimicrotubular

D. bisphosphonates

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4

For prostate cancer patients, what do Partin tables predict?

A. survival rate

B. pathologic stage

C. extracapsular extension

D. lymph node involvement

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4

Which of the following tests has the highest positive predictive value for prostate cancer?

A. PSA

B. digital rectal examination

C. transrectal ultrasonography

D. human kallikrein 2

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4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting is a reasonable option for:

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

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4

Which PSA value interpretation is incorrect?

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

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4

What is the likelihood that patients with positive surgical margins after radical prostatectomy will be cured for prostate cancer?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

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4

Genetically, what are the changes associated with poor survival in prostate cancer patients?

A. loss of one or both copies of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN

B. TMPRSS2ERG chromosome fusion

C. P53 mutations and overexpression of MYC

D. all of the above

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4

Following bilateral orchiectomy for prostate cancer, testosterone will:

A. initially drop to nadir, and then recover over 2 weeks

B. decline by 50% within 2 weeks and then normalize

C. decline by 90% within 24 hours

D. decline by 70%

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4

Which factor is closely related to the return to urinary continence function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

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4

What is the likelihood that prostate cells die in a single freeze cycle of cryotherapy when tissue temperature reaches colder than - 400 C?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

Regarding chemotherapy for prostate cancers, nonsteroidal antiandrogens will result in:

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

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4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

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4

What is false concerning thawing procedure to treat prostate cancer cells?

A. slow thawing is more effective than rapid thawing

B. the most common complication is erectile dysfunction

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended

D. the two most common modalities employed in focal therapy are highintensity focused ultrasound and cryosurgery

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4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

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4

What pathologic findings after radical prostatectomy are predictive for occult metastases?

A. seminal vesicle invasion and lymph node metastases

B. positive surgical margins and seminal vesicle involvement

C. capsular penetration and lymph node metastases

D. rectal and bladder neck involvement

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4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

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4

What condition does NOT appear as a hypoechoic lesion in the prostate on TRUS?

A. prostate cancer

B. corpora amylacea

C. transitional zone

D. tuberculous prostatitis

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4

In descending order, to where do prostate cancers metastasize?

A. lymph nodes, bone, lung, bladder, liver, and adrenal glands

B. bone, lung, lymph nodes, liver, bladder, and adrenal glands

C. lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone, adrenal glands, and bladder

D. liver, lung, bone, lymph nodes, bladder, and adrenal glands

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4

During retropubic radical prostatectomy, what complication could be encountered on dividing the dorsal vein complex anteriorly?

A. incontinence

B. retrograde ejaculation

C. impotence

D. anejaculation

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4

What is true about the usefulness of Gleason scoring system?

A. used to stage prostate cancer

B. a specimen of grade 3 + 4 is worse than 4 + 3

C. a sum of 6 suggests an intermediate risk for aggressive cancer

D. it has a role in guiding the appropriate treatment options

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4

Screening for prostate cancer is recommended for men who are:

A. at average risk, aging 50 yrs., and have at least a 10-year life expectancy

B. aging 40 yrs., and had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

C. aging 40 yrs., African Americans

D. all of the above

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4

What is the primary mechanism of prostate tissue ablation using high-intensity focused ultrasound?

A. disruption of protein synthesis

B. coagulative necrosis

C. cell wall destruction

D. DNA damage

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4

Concerning prostate cancers, a pre-treatment PSA velocity of > 2 ng/mL/yr is associated with an increased risk of:

A. pathological bone fractures

B. biochemical failure following radiation therapy

C. hepato-renal disease following chemotherapy

D. upgrading the pre-treatment risk stratification

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4

What advantage does laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy has over open surgery in treating prostate cancers?

A. preserving potency

B. avoiding incontinence

C. less bleeding

D. all of the above