A. TUR ejaculatory duct

B. prolonged urethral catheterization

C. prostatic biopsy

D. vas ligation

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi

B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis

C. schistosomiasis cystitis

D. inverted papilloma of the bladder

A. in the elderly

B. in long-term catheterized patient

C. in pregnancy

D. none of the above

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign

B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones

C. nephrectomy is the treatment

D. all of the above

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms

B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine

C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen

D. all of the above

A. bladder epithelial cells

B. type C nerve endings in the bladder

C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder

D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles

B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains

C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC

D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes

A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals

B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

C. ampicillin

D. fosfomycin

A. children

B. the elderly

C. men

D. women

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction

B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy

C. has no specific medical therapy

D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria

A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection

B. urine culture might be negative

C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis

D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment

A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation

B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors

C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors

D. none of the above

A. type I could harbor prostate abscess

B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections

C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints

D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

A. type II

B. type III-a

C. type III-b

D. type IV

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis

A. vesicoureteral reflux

B. stenosis of the lower ureter

C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis

D. any of the above

A. inadequately treated UTI

B. renal papillary necrosis

C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis

D. urinary tract tuberculosis