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4

Which innervations mediate detumescence?

A. cavernous nerves

B. dorsal nerves of the penis

C. sympathetic nervous system

D. parasympathetic nervous system

Correct Answer :

C. sympathetic nervous system


detumescence happens because of sympathetic discharge to the cavernous smooth muscles.

Related Questions

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4

Which part of the prostate prevents the seminal fluid from entering the bladder during ejaculation?

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. preprostatic tissue

D. anterior fibromuscular stroma

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4

Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?

A. opening of internal bladder sphincter

B. fall in urethral pressure

C. rise in intravesical pressure

D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity

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4

What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. somatic nervous system

D. none of the above

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4

Which statement is true about the female urethra?

A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra

B. 4 inch long

C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris

D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age

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4

What increases blood volume and pressure in corpora cavernosa during erection is:

A. increase in sympathetic discharge

B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles

C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins

D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery

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4

Which α- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?

A. α1-A

B. α2-A

C. α1-B

D. α2-B

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4

To which group of lymph nodes do tumors at the anterior superior area of the bladder, first, drain?

A. hypogastric

B. internal iliac

C. external iliac

D. lateral sacral

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4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 64

D. 90

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?

A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex

B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow

C. it causes pheochromocytoma

D. secretes aldosterone

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4

What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?

A. erythropoietin

B. renin

C. angiotensin I

D. angiotensinogen

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4

What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?

A. somatic innervations

B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2

C. the pudendal nerve

D. the obturator nerve

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4

Which of the following diabetes mellitus treatments causes erectile dysfunction?

A. long-acting insulin

B. metformin

C. sulfonylurea

D. none of the above

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4

What is the narrowest part of the ureter?

A. uretero-pelvic junction

B. uretero-vesical junction

C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim

D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation

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4

Which layer lies between the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes?

A. Scarpa`s fascia

B. fascia lata

C. Dartos fascia

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

Which area in the nervous system is tested by bulbocavernosus reflex?

A. brain stem

B. C2 C4

C. S2 - S4

D. L2 - L4

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4

What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?

A. hoarseness of voice

B. enlargement of testes

C. appearance of axillary hair

D. change in body odor

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4

Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?

A. tamsulosin

B. doxazosin

C. dutasteride

D. alfuzosin

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?

A. human kallikrein 2

B. pro-PSA

C. free PSA

D. complexed PSA

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4

What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?

A. Denonvilliers fascia

B. prostatic fascia

C. levator fascia

D. all of the above

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4

Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?

A. vancomycin

B. cefotaxime

C. penicillin G

D. tobramycin

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4

The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:

A. hypotension and tachycardia

B. hypotension and bradycardia

C. hypertension and tachycardia

D. hypertension and bradycardia

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4

Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. periurethral glands

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4

What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?

A. aminoglycosides

B. αantipseudomonal penicillins

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:

A. vas deferens

B. seminal vesicles

C. appendix epididymis

D. appendix testis

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4

What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:

A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus

B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy

C. elevated levels of progesterone

D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions

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4

Which type of renal stone crystals is known as coffin lid?

A. oxalate

B. struvite

C. urate

D. cystine

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4

What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?

A. intratubular crystal formation might occur

B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi

C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication

D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion

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4

Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?

A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

B. von Hippel-Lindau disease

C. tuberous sclerosis

D. Sturge-Webber syndrome