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4

What increases blood volume and pressure in corpora cavernosa during erection is:

A. increase in sympathetic discharge

B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles

C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins

D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery

Correct Answer :

C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins


penile erection occurs due to parasympathetic outflow that leads to dilation of cavernosal smooth muscles and trapping of blood in the corpora as a result of the closure of emissary veins.

Related Questions

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4

What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?

A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag

B. it is commonly symptomless

C. more common in female nursing home residents

D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli

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4

How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 64

D. 90

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4

Which class of the following diuretics could cause erectile dysfunction?

A. loop diuretics

B. thiazide diuretics

C. potassium sparing diuretics

D. osmotic diuretics

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4

Which of the prostate medications could result in significant hypotension?

A. finasteride

B. prazosin

C. silodosin

D. vardenafil

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4

Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?

A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex

B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow

C. it causes pheochromocytoma

D. secretes aldosterone

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4

Which class of the following agents does NOT impair spermatogenesis?

A. alkylating agents

B. phenothiazines

C. antiandrogens

D. prostaglandins

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4

Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. fibromuscular stroma

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4

Which area in the nervous system is tested by bulbocavernosus reflex?

A. brain stem

B. C2 C4

C. S2 - S4

D. L2 - L4

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4

What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?

A. central then transitional

B. peripheral then transitional

C. peripheral then central

D. transitional then central

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4

The majority of circulating testosterone is:

A. bound to sex hormone-binding globulin

B. free

C. bound to α1-antichymotrypsin

D. bound to albumin

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4

By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?

A. inferior mesenteric artery

B. superior mesenteric artery

C. celiac artery

D. common iliac artery

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4

The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:

A. breasts

B. thyroids

C. lungs

D. liver

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4

Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?

A. intimal fibroplasia

B. medial fibroplasia

C. medial hyperplasia

D. serosal hyperplasia

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4

Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?

A. zinc

B. fructose

C. prostate-specific antigen

D. alkaline phosphatase

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4

Which innervations mediate detumescence?

A. cavernous nerves

B. dorsal nerves of the penis

C. sympathetic nervous system

D. parasympathetic nervous system

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4

Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?

A. occurs after acrosome reaction

B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer

C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation

D. changes occur in the female genital tract

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4

The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:

A. intermediate mesoderm

B. mesothelium of celomic cavity

C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus

D. somatic ectoderm

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4

What is false concerning renal vasculature?

A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution

B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane

C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries

D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery

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4

Which statement is NOT related to Klinefelter syndrome?

A. sterility is the rule

B. has a considerable short life span

C. treatment requires testicular microdissection and sperm extraction

D. 47 XXY karyotype

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4

Which agent is safe to kidneys?

A. amoxicillin

B. gentamycin

C. diclofenac

D. herb extract

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4

What is the half-life of β-HCG?

A. 5 7 days

B. 24 36 hours

C. 2 3 days

D. 12 24 hours

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4

Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?

A. cystoscopy

B. CT urography

C. urine cytology

D. all of the above

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4

Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?

A. opening of internal bladder sphincter

B. fall in urethral pressure

C. rise in intravesical pressure

D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity

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4

What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 10

D. 5

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4

What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?

A. erythropoietin

B. renin

C. angiotensin I

D. angiotensinogen

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4

At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?

A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast

B. seminoma

C. hepatocellular carcinoma

D. malignant melanoma

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4

What causes pure testicular feminization is:

A. over estrogen synthesis

B. defective end-organ androgen response

C. extra X chromosome (XXY)

D. failure of genital ridge regression

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4

What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?

A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter

B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter

C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele

D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele

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4

When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?

A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months

B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml

C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml

D. any of the above

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4

Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?

A. hyperoxaluria

B. hypercalciuria

C. hyperuricosuria

D. hyperphosphateuria