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4

Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?

A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria

B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen

C. warrants full hematuria workup

D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance

Correct Answer :

A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria


the incidence of malignancy is related to the degree of hematuria.

Related Questions

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4

What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?

A. central then transitional

B. peripheral then transitional

C. peripheral then central

D. transitional then central

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4

Which hormone measures testicular germ cell function best?

A. LH

B. FSH

C. HCG

D. none of the above

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4

What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?

A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite

B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction

C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria

D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete

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4

What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?

A. Denonvilliers fascia

B. prostatic fascia

C. levator fascia

D. all of the above

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4

What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?

A. full bladder or rectum

B. tooth extraction

C. hypertension medications

D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

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4

What causes Cushing`s disease is:

A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH

C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids

D. immune-mediated disease

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4

What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?

A. sympathetic to the medulla

B. parasympathetic to the medulla

C. sympathetic to the cortex

D. parasympathetic to the cortex

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4

Which of the following diabetes mellitus treatments causes erectile dysfunction?

A. long-acting insulin

B. metformin

C. sulfonylurea

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?

A. chyluria

B. bacteriuria

C. phosphaturia

D. all of the above

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4

To which group of lymph nodes do tumors at the anterior superior area of the bladder, first, drain?

A. hypogastric

B. internal iliac

C. external iliac

D. lateral sacral

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4

What is false concerning PSA molecule?

A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate

B. α1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

C. α2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa

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4

At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?

A. sixth

B. seventh

C. eighth

D. ninth

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4

Which α- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?

A. α1-A

B. α2-A

C. α1-B

D. α2-B

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4

What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?

A. vancomycin

B. clindamycin

C. streptomycin

D. tobramycin

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4

Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?

A. Serratia marcescens

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Clostridium difficile

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4

What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?

A. intratubular crystal formation might occur

B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi

C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication

D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion

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4

At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?

A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis

B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail

C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation

D. shares the same blood supply of the testis

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4

What is the creatinine clearance in ml/min for a 70 kg man aging 50 yrs. with 1.1 mg/dL serum creatinine?

A. 79.54

B. 44.19

C. 84.15

D. 94.25

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4

Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?

A. occurs after acrosome reaction

B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer

C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation

D. changes occur in the female genital tract

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4

In which body tissue(s) are creatine and phosphocreatine converted to creatinine?

A. bone marrow

B. skeletal muscles

C. brown fat

D. liver

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4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?

A. 4 to 6

B. 7 to 9

C. 10 to 12

D. 13 to 14

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4

The epithelial component of the prostate consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. basal cells

B. intermediate cells

C. tubulo-columnar cells

D. neuroendocrine cells

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone

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4

Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?

A. the membranous

B. the bladder neck

C. the bulbous

D. the external urethral meatus

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4

Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?

A. Ureaplasma urealyticum

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. E. coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhea

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4

Which class of the following diuretics could cause erectile dysfunction?

A. loop diuretics

B. thiazide diuretics

C. potassium sparing diuretics

D. osmotic diuretics

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4

Serum testosterone should be measured:

A. at mid-day

B. at the hour of sleep

C. in the morning

D. late afternoon

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4

Where is the centre of reflex erection located at?

A. the brain cortex

B. the sacral cord

C. the lumbar cord

D. the hypothalamus