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Current Affairs January 2024

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4

Screening for prostate cancer is recommended for men who are:

A. at average risk, aging 50 yrs., and have at least a 10-year life expectancy

B. aging 40 yrs., and had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

C. aging 40 yrs., African Americans

D. all of the above

Correct Answer :

D. all of the above


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

What is false concerning thawing procedure to treat prostate cancer cells?

A. slow thawing is more effective than rapid thawing

B. the most common complication is erectile dysfunction

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended

D. the two most common modalities employed in focal therapy are highintensity focused ultrasound and cryosurgery

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4

What pathologic findings after radical prostatectomy are predictive for occult metastases?

A. seminal vesicle invasion and lymph node metastases

B. positive surgical margins and seminal vesicle involvement

C. capsular penetration and lymph node metastases

D. rectal and bladder neck involvement

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4

What is against using TRUS-guided therapy for focal prostate cancer?

A. it overdiagnoses clinically insignificant cancers

B. it misses clinically significant cancers in the anterior or apical regions

C. it may underrepresent true cancer burden

D. all of the above

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4

Prostate-specific membrane antigen has been detected in:

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

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4

What is false concerning prostate cancer?

A. the most common cause of mortality in men with prostate cancer is cardiac disease

B. is the second most common cause of cancer death in males

C. androgens have a pivotal role in prostate cancer development

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer

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4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting is a reasonable option for:

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

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4

What is true concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. hematospermia might persist for 4 6 weeks after taking biopsies

B. quinolone antibiotics prophylaxis eliminate possible infections

C. the right lateral decubitus position is commonly preferred

D. only hypoechoic lesions should be biopsied

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4

Partin tables are probability tables for the determination of pathologic stages of prostatic cancers based on:

A. preoperative clinical stage, PSA level, and Gleason sum

B. seminal vesicle invasion, lymph node metastases, and Gleason sum

C. positive surgical margins, capsular penetration, and PSA level

D. PSA level, perineural invasion, vascular metastasis, and Gleason sum

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4

What is false concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

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4

What advantage does laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy has over open surgery in treating prostate cancers?

A. preserving potency

B. avoiding incontinence

C. less bleeding

D. all of the above

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4

What is the proper pre-treatment risk stratification of prostate cancer for a patient with T2a, PSA < 11 ng/mL, and no Gleason score > 6?

A. low risk

B. intermediate risk

C. high risk

D. data not adequate

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4

Following bilateral orchiectomy for prostate cancer, testosterone will:

A. initially drop to nadir, and then recover over 2 weeks

B. decline by 50% within 2 weeks and then normalize

C. decline by 90% within 24 hours

D. decline by 70%

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4

Which factor is closely related to the return to urinary continence function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

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4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

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4

What is the likelihood that prostate cells die in a single freeze cycle of cryotherapy when tissue temperature reaches colder than - 400 C?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

What is true surrounding PSA?

A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do

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4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

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4

What fraction of men with a PSA value between 4 and 10 ng/mL has an organ-confined prostate cancer?

A.

B. ¼

C. ½

D.

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4

What is the likelihood that patients with positive surgical margins after radical prostatectomy will be cured for prostate cancer?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

Concerning prostate cancers, a pre-treatment PSA velocity of > 2 ng/mL/yr is associated with an increased risk of:

A. pathological bone fractures

B. biochemical failure following radiation therapy

C. hepato-renal disease following chemotherapy

D. upgrading the pre-treatment risk stratification

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4

BPH patients on finasteride longer than 6 months are expected to have:

A. decreased t-PSA but increased f-PSA

B. decreased t-PSA but unaltered f-PSA

C. decreased t-PSA and decreased f-PSA

D. any of the above

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4

What class of prostate cancer medications causes an initial increase in LH, FSH levels and consequently a rise in testosterone level for few weeks?

A. GnRH agonists

B. antiandrogens

C. antimicrotubular

D. bisphosphonates

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4

What is false regarding the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

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4

Which PSA value interpretation is incorrect?

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

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4

What is false concerning the interpretation of Gleason scoring system?

A. a low score means the cancer tissue is similar to normal prostate tissue

B. it indicates how likely the tumor will spread

C. the more cellular atypia observed the higher scoring will be

D. it relies only on the glandular architectural pattern

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4

What is true regarding seminal vesicles` involvement in prostate cancer?

A. is almost always due to direct extension (T2c)

B. it is involved in 85% of positive surgical margins following radical prostatectomy

C. it carries a poor prognosis

D. none of the above

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4

What is false regarding prostate adenocarcinoma in the peripheral zone?

A. 85% of prostate adenocarcinomas are located in the peripheral zone

B. 15% of them are multifocal

C. they tend to extend outside the prostate through the perineural space

D. the presence of perineural invasion does not worsen the prognosis

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4

What are the possible complications of CO2 pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy?

A. hypoxia and acidosis

B. tachycardia and tachypnea

C. bradycardia and hypotension

D. hypercarbia and oliguria

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4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

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4

What is the primary mechanism of prostate tissue ablation using high-intensity focused ultrasound?

A. disruption of protein synthesis

B. coagulative necrosis

C. cell wall destruction

D. DNA damage