A. viral load assay

B. western blot analysis

C. southern blot analysis

D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies

B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland

C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts

D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB

A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill

B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse

C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock

A. scrotal support and elevation

B. ice packs

C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

D. urethral catheterization

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells

B. vaginal dryness

C. O serogroup

D. vaginal pH

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation

B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors

C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors

D. none of the above

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia

B. might respond to a selective nerve block

C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis

D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon

D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters

A. natural sloughing of bladder mucosa

B. voiding

C. urine osmolarity

D. urine pH

A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals

B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals

C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection

D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery

A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms

B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine

C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen

D. all of the above

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. ureteral obstruction

B. proteinuria

C. stone formation

D. renal scarring

A. infertility

B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor

D. chronic orchalgia

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin

A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium

B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms

C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen

A. nephrotic syndrome

B. hypertension

C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy

D. sarcoidosis