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4

Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?

A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

B. ureterocele

C. ureteral reflux

D. ureteral atresia

Correct Answer :

A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction


the commonest of the listed anomalies is UPJ obstruction due to crossing aberrant blood vessel.

Related Questions

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4

Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?

A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

B. ureterocele

C. ureteral reflux

D. ureteral atresia

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4

Where is the centre of reflex erection located at?

A. the brain cortex

B. the sacral cord

C. the lumbar cord

D. the hypothalamus

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4

To which group of lymph nodes do tumors at the anterior superior area of the bladder, first, drain?

A. hypogastric

B. internal iliac

C. external iliac

D. lateral sacral

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4

What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?

A. from early morning urine sample

B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time

C. performing 24 urine collection

D. from a mid-stream urine sample

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4

Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?

A. granular

B. hyaline

C. waxy

D. pigment

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4

What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?

A. sympathetic to the medulla

B. parasympathetic to the medulla

C. sympathetic to the cortex

D. parasympathetic to the cortex

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4

How does estrogen prevent lower UTI in postmenopausal women?

A. increasing vaginal secretions

B. decreasing vaginal pH

C. increasing normal vaginal flora

D. decreasing bacterial adherence

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4

What does apoptosis mean?

A. programmed cell death

B. new vascular formation

C. uninhibited neural stimulation

D. premature muscular contraction

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4

What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?

A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents

B. causes injection site reactions

C. is active against most uropathogens

D. is effective as a single-dose agent

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4

Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?

A. terazosin, antihypertensive

B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine

C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine

D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops

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4

What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?

A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite

B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction

C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria

D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete

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4

What is false concerning PSA molecule?

A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate

B. α1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

C. α2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?

A. intimal fibroplasia

B. medial fibroplasia

C. medial hyperplasia

D. serosal hyperplasia

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4

How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?

A. by increasing oxalate absorption

B. by heterogeneous nucleation

C. by inducing hyperoxaluria

D. by reducing urate crystals saturation

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4

Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. fibromuscular stroma

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4

What does make UTI more common in mid-aged females than in males?

A. short female urethra

B. pregnancy

C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria

D. all the above

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4

How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?

A. 4 to 6

B. 7 to 9

C. 10 to 12

D. 13 to 14

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4

What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?

A. dehydration

B. myoglobinuria

C. high doses of vitamin C

D. all of the above

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4

The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:

A. breasts

B. thyroids

C. lungs

D. liver

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4

Branches of what artery travel under the endopelvic fascia form the prostate to the sidewall of the pelvis?

A. obturator artery

B. midrectal artery

C. inferior vesical artery

D. pudendal artery

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4

What causes pure testicular feminization is:

A. over estrogen synthesis

B. defective end-organ androgen response

C. extra X chromosome (XXY)

D. failure of genital ridge regression

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4

Which of the following mediates calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubules?

A. aldosterone

B. hypocalcemia

C. parathyroid hormone

D. vitamin D

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4

At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?

A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast

B. seminoma

C. hepatocellular carcinoma

D. malignant melanoma

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4

Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?

A. Serratia marcescens

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Clostridium difficile

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4

Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?

A. internal and external iliac

B. superficial inguinal

C. deep inguinal

D. superficial and deep inguinal

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4

Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?

A. 9 12 weeks

B. 12 15 weeks

C. 15 18 weeks

D. 18 21 weeks

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4

Where is Santorini plexus located?

A. at either side of the prostate

B. in the pubo-prostatic space

C. anterior to the seminal vesicles

D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction

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4

Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?

A. retinal hemangioblastoma

B. ureteral atresia

C. pheochromocytomas

D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys

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4

Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?

A. the prostate gland

B. seminal vesicles

C. epididymi

D. bulbourethral glands