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4

What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?

A. from early morning urine sample

B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time

C. performing 24 urine collection

D. from a mid-stream urine sample

Correct Answer :

C. performing 24 urine collection


24 hr. urine collection provides the basic investigation tool for urinary stones workup.

Related Questions

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4

Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?

A. the prostate gland

B. seminal vesicles

C. epididymi

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?

A. increase collecting duct permeability

B. increase medullary blood flow

C. decrease cortical blood flow

D. decrease potassium secretion

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4

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?

A. hypercholesterolemia

B. hyperuricemia

C. hypoglycemia

D. hypercalcemia

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4

What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?

A. ureteral atresia

B. vesicoureteral reflux

C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

D. ureteral duplication

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4

Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?

A. granular

B. hyaline

C. waxy

D. pigment

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4

What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:

A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus

B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy

C. elevated levels of progesterone

D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions

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4

Which statement is NOT related to Klinefelter syndrome?

A. sterility is the rule

B. has a considerable short life span

C. treatment requires testicular microdissection and sperm extraction

D. 47 XXY karyotype

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4

By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?

A. inferior mesenteric artery

B. superior mesenteric artery

C. celiac artery

D. common iliac artery

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4

In males, which of the following structure(s) can NOT be palpated during digital rectal examination?

A. pelvic floor muscles

B. seminal vesicles

C. anterior surface of the sacrum

D. median lobe of the prostate

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4

Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?

A. retinal hemangioblastoma

B. ureteral atresia

C. pheochromocytomas

D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys

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4

Which medicine(s) might enhance hypoprothrombinemic effect on oral anticoagulants?

A. allopurinol

B. aminoglycosides

C. cimetidine

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?

A. human kallikrein 2

B. pro-PSA

C. free PSA

D. complexed PSA

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4

Adult size of bladder capacity is achieved at what age?

A. 5 6 yrs.

B. 7 8 yrs.

C. 9 10 yrs.

D. 11 12 yrs.

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4

Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. periurethral glands

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4

Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?

A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis

B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail

C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation

D. shares the same blood supply of the testis

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4

What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. somatic nervous system

D. none of the above

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4

What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?

A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter

B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter

C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele

D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele

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4

What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?

A. from early morning urine sample

B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time

C. performing 24 urine collection

D. from a mid-stream urine sample

What is the correct answer?

4

What type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) does demonstrate aldosterone resistance?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?

A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months

B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml

C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml

D. any of the above

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4

What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?

A. dehydration

B. myoglobinuria

C. high doses of vitamin C

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?

A. gender

B. age

C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter

D. rhabdomyolysis

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4

Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?

A. Serratia marcescens

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Clostridium difficile

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?

A. vancomycin

B. clindamycin

C. streptomycin

D. tobramycin

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4

At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?

A. sixth

B. seventh

C. eighth

D. ninth

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4

What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?

A. central then transitional

B. peripheral then transitional

C. peripheral then central

D. transitional then central

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4

All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:

A. vas deferens

B. seminal vesicles

C. appendix epididymis

D. appendix testis

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4

Which of the following diabetes mellitus treatments causes erectile dysfunction?

A. long-acting insulin

B. metformin

C. sulfonylurea

D. none of the above

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4

What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 10

D. 5