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4

Branches of what artery travel under the endopelvic fascia form the prostate to the sidewall of the pelvis?

A. obturator artery

B. midrectal artery

C. inferior vesical artery

D. pudendal artery

Correct Answer :

D. pudendal artery


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

Which statement is false concerning smegma?

A. it is the white secretion produced under the foreskin in males

B. it has a crucial role in penile cancer development

C. it contains lysozymes, chymotrypsin, neutrophil elastase and cytokines

D. female smegma can be found between the labia

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4

Regarding renal ectopia, usually, the adrenals:

A. are cross ectopic

B. are at their normal position

C. travel with the kidneys

D. undergo ischemic atrophy

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4

What causes pure testicular feminization is:

A. over estrogen synthesis

B. defective end-organ androgen response

C. extra X chromosome (XXY)

D. failure of genital ridge regression

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4

Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?

A. ice slush

B. heparin

C. norepinephrine

D. methylene blue

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4

The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:

A. intermediate mesoderm

B. mesothelium of celomic cavity

C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus

D. somatic ectoderm

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4

What is false concerning renal vasculature?

A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution

B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane

C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries

D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery

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4

Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?

A. at birth

B. 2 years

C. at puberty

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?

A. 5α-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT

B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen

C. PSA molecule binds to α1-antichymotrypsin and α2-macroglobulin

D. none of the above

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?

A. ureteral atresia

B. vesicoureteral reflux

C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

D. ureteral duplication

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4

Which agent is safe to kidneys?

A. amoxicillin

B. gentamycin

C. diclofenac

D. herb extract

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4

Where is Santorini plexus located?

A. at either side of the prostate

B. in the pubo-prostatic space

C. anterior to the seminal vesicles

D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction

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4

Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?

A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis

B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail

C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation

D. shares the same blood supply of the testis

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4

Between which 2 fascial planes does the prostatic neurovascular bundle travel?

A. prostatic fascia and levator fascia

B. prostate capsule and prostatic fascia

C. Denonvilliers fascia and prostate capsule

D. Denonvilliers fascia and endopelvic fascia

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4

Which organ contributes most to the seminal fluid volume?

A. testes

B. prostate

C. seminal vesicles

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A. cisplatin

B. ifosfamide

C. phosphomycin

D. amphotericin B

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4

Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?

A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD

B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement

C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate

D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration

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4

What is the most likely diagnosis of an erectile dysfunction patient with low plasma testosterone and high prolactin levels?

A. pituitary adenoma

B. adrenal adenoma

C. Kallmann syndrome

D. Klinefelter syndrome

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4

What are the posterior relations of the kidneys?

A. quadratus lumborum and diaphragm

B. psoas and diaphragm

C. psoas and latissimus dorsi

D. transversus abdominus and paraspinous

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4

Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?

A. seminal vesicles

B. the prostate

C. testes

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?

A. Watson plexus

B. capsular arteries and veins

C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels

D. Santorini plexus

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4

The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:

A. hypotension and tachycardia

B. hypotension and bradycardia

C. hypertension and tachycardia

D. hypertension and bradycardia

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4

What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):

A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine

B. dried urate crystals on the diaper

C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine

D. Candidiasis in the urine

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4

Which of the following lab results indicates prerenal failure?

A. serum BUN : creatinine > 20

B. urine [Na] < 30 mEq/L

C. Na excretion fraction < 1

D. all of the above

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4

Which part of the prostate prevents the seminal fluid from entering the bladder during ejaculation?

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. preprostatic tissue

D. anterior fibromuscular stroma

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4

Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?

A. internal and external iliac

B. superficial inguinal

C. deep inguinal

D. superficial and deep inguinal

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4

What is true regarding hematospermia?

A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria

B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology

C. carries a risk of infertility

D. mandates testicular biopsy

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4

Which statement is true about the female urethra?

A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra

B. 4 inch long

C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris

D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age

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4

At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

What is the most significant complication of cyclosporine?

A. hepatic toxicity

B. renal toxicity

C. neural toxicity

D. cardiac toxicity